PUNJAB NURSING ADMISSION MOCK TEST 3

Chemistry
1.

What is the mass of carbon dioxide which contains the same number of molecules as are contained in 40 grams of oxygen?

• a. 40 g
• b. 55 g
• c. 32 g
• d. 44 g

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
2.

Which of the following elements has 3d⁶ as its outermost configuration?

• a. 12
• b. 32
• c. 26
• d. 24

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
3.

Ionization enthalpy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because of:

• a. Extra stability of half filled orbitals
• b. More number of energy levels
• c. Smaller size
• d. Less valence electrons

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Correct Answer: a

Chemistry
4.

Which of the following pairs are isostructural?

• a. SO₄²⁻ and BF₄⁻
• b. NH₃ and NH₄⁺
• c. CO₃²⁻ and CO₂
• d. CH₄ and BF₃

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Correct Answer: a

Chemistry
5.

The correct order of boiling points of 2,2-dimethylpropane, 2-methylbutane and n-pentane is:

• a. n-pentane > 2,2-dimethylpropane > 2-methylbutane
• b. n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2,2-dimethylpropane
• c. 2,2-dimethylpropane > 2-methylbutane > n-pentane
• d. 2-methylbutane > n-pentane > 2,2-dimethylpropane

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
6.

According to Lewis concept, an acid is an:

• a. Proton donor
• b. Electron pair donor
• c. Proton acceptor
• d. Electron pair acceptor

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Correct Answer: d

Chemistry
7.

Addition of oxygen to an element or compound is termed as:

• a. Oxidation
• b. Reduction
• c. Ionisation
• d. Redox reaction

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Correct Answer: a

Chemistry
8.

A process in which the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings is:

• a. Isothermal
• b. Isobaric
• c. Isochoric
• d. Adiabatic

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Correct Answer: d

Chemistry
9.

The bond energy of an O-H bond is 109 kcal/mol. When a mole of water is formed:

• a. 109 kcal is released
• b. 218 kcal is released
• c. 109 kcal is absorbed
• d. 218 kcal is absorbed

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
10.

Which compound cannot be prepared by Kolbe's electrolytic method?

• a. Ethane
• b. Butane
• c. Methane
• d. Hexane

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
11.

The IUPAC name of 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene represents:

• a. 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
• b. 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
• c. 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
• d. 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
12.

Which of the following has the lowest pKa value?

• a. CH₃COOH
• b. O₂NCH₂COOH
• c. Cl-CH₂COOH
• d. HCOOH

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
13.

Iodoform test is NOT given by:

• a. Ethanol
• b. Ethanal
• c. Pentan-2-one
• d. Pentan-3-one

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Correct Answer: d

Chemistry
14.

The law relating gas solubility in liquid to pressure is:

• a. Raoult's law
• b. Henry's law
• c. Van 't Hoff law
• d. Dalton's law

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
15.

Which of the following is NOT a neutral ligand?

• a. H₂O
• b. NH₃
• c. ONO⁻
• d. CO

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
16.

Transition metals are efficient catalysts because they:

• a. Adopt multiple oxidation states
• b. Form coloured ions
• c. Are paramagnetic
• d. Are very heavy

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Correct Answer: a

Chemistry
17.

Which compound has the highest melting point?

• a. Chlorobenzene
• b. o-Dichlorobenzene
• c. m-Dichlorobenzene
• d. p-Dichlorobenzene

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Correct Answer: d

Chemistry
18.

Secondary amines can be prepared by:

• a. Reduction of nitro compounds
• b. Reduction of amides
• c. Reduction of isonitriles
• d. Reduction of nitriles

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
19.

Nucleosides are composed of:

• a. Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar
• b. Base + Phosphoric acid
• c. Sugar + Phosphoric acid
• d. Base + Sugar + Phosphate

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Correct Answer: a

Chemistry
20.

Spontaneous reactions have:

• a. ΔG Positive, E°cell Negative
• b. ΔG Negative, E°cell Positive
• c. Both Positive
• d. Both Negative

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
21.

Standard hydrogen electrode potential is assumed to be:

• a. 1.0 V
• b. 0.5 V
• c. Zero
• d. -1.0 V

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
22.

Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by aq. NaOH hydrolysis yields:

• a. o-Cresol
• b. m-Cresol
• c. Benzyl alcohol
• d. Benzaldehyde

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Correct Answer: c

Chemistry
23.

Which of the following is an ideal solution pair?

• a. Ethanol + Acetone
• b. Benzene + Toluene
• c. Chloroform + Acetone
• d. Water + Nitric Acid

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
24.

Spontaneous exothermic reactions usually occur when:

• a. Temp is high
• b. Temp is low
• c. Temp is zero
• d. No effect

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Correct Answer: b

Chemistry
25.

Order of a reaction is:

• a. Theoretically derived
• b. Experimentally determined
• c. Always a whole number
• d. Equal to molecularity

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
26.

A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. With the same speed, how high can he throw it vertically?

• a. 50 m
• b. 100 m
• c. 150 m
• d. 200 m

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Correct Answer: a

Physics
27.

A book is lying on a table. The angle between the action of the book and the reaction of the table is:

• a. 0°
• b. 45°
• c. 90°
• d. 180°

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Correct Answer: d

Physics
28.

Velocity of sound in vacuum is:

• a. 330 m/s
• b. Zero
• c. 360 m/s
• d. 660 m/s

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
29.

The value of Young's modulus for a perfectly rigid body is:

• a. Zero
• b. Infinite
• c. 1
• d. Negative

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
30.

If force (F), velocity (V), and time (T) are fundamental units, the dimensions of mass are:

• a. [F V T⁻¹]
• b. [F V⁻¹ T⁻¹]
• c. [F V⁻¹ T]
• d. [F V T⁻²]

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Correct Answer: c

Physics
31.

Standard hydrogen electrode has a zero potential because:

• a. Hydrogen is easiest to oxidize
• b. It has only one electron
• c. The potential is assumed to be zero
• d. It is the lightest element

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Correct Answer: c

Physics
32.

Two soap bubbles have radii in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of work done in blowing them is:

• a. 4:9
• b. 2:3
• c. 3:2
• d. 9:4

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Correct Answer: a

Physics
33.

A converging lens forms an image. If the upper half is covered with opaque paper:

• a. Half the image disappears
• b. The image disappears completely
• c. Intensity of image decreases
• d. Intensity of image increases

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Correct Answer: c

Physics
34.

Who established that electric charges are quantised?

• a. J.J. Thomson
• b. R.A. Millikan
• c. William Crookes
• d. Wilhelm Roentgen

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
35.

Potential barrier in a junction diode opposes the flow of:

• a. Minority carriers only
• b. Majority carriers only
• c. Electrons in P region
• d. Holes in P region

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
36.

A solid sphere rolls down two planes of same height but different angles. In both cases:

• a. Speed and time are same
• b. Speed same, time different
• c. Speed different, time same
• d. Both are different

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
37.

Standard system of units (British) does NOT include:

• a. Foot
• b. Metre
• c. Pound
• d. Second

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
38.

Pressure at a point inside a liquid does NOT depend on:

• a. Nature of liquid
• b. Shape of container
• c. Depth of point
• d. Acceleration due to gravity

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
39.

Light energy emitted by stars is due to:

• a. Breaking of nuclei
• b. Joining of nuclei
• c. Burning of nuclei
• d. Reflection

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
40.

In Geiger Marsden experiment, the distance of closest approach for 7.7 MeV alpha particle is:

• a. 10 fm
• b. 20 fm
• c. 30 fm
• d. 40 fm

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Correct Answer: c

Physics
41.

Magnetic field lines form:

• a. Open loops
• b. Continuous closed loops
• c. Intersecting lines
• d. Straight lines only

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
42.

If AC frequency decreases, the displacement current in a capacitor will:

• a. Increase
• b. Decrease
• c. Remain constant
• d. Become zero

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
43.

Critical velocity of a liquid:

• a. Increases with radius
• b. Decreases with density
• c. Increases with density
• d. Independent of radius

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
44.

Two identical cells in parallel across resistor R. Current is:

• a. E/R
• b. 2E/R
• c. E/2R
• d. ER

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Correct Answer: a

Physics
45.

A satellite losing energy will have its speed (v) and radius (r) change as:

• a. v decrease, r increase
• b. v increase, r decrease
• c. Both decrease
• d. Both increase

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
46.

Black hole is:

• a. Ozone layer
• b. Super dense planetary material
• c. Atmosphere surface
• d. None of these

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
47.

Work done by force F=(2+X) from X=1m to X=2m is:

• a. 2.5 J
• b. 3.5 J
• c. 4.5 J
• d. 5.5 J

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
48.

An elevator (1800kg) moves up at 2m/s with 4000N friction. Motor power (kW) is:

• a. 22
• b. 44
• c. 66
• d. 88

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
49.

Which motion is oscillatory?

• a. Earth rotation
• b. Piston in steam engine
• c. Arrow from bow
• d. Falling stone

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Correct Answer: b

Physics
50.

Electric field to suspend water drop (mass m) with one electron (e) is:

• a. mg
• b. mg/e
• c. emg
• d. e/mg

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
51.

A living organism is unexceptionally differentiated from non-living on the basis of:

• a. Reproduction
• b. Growth and movement
• c. Responsiveness
• d. Interaction with environment

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Correct Answer: c

Biology
52.

The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is:

• a. Parabola
• b. Sigmoid curve
• c. Straight line
• d. Hyperbola

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
53.

Which of the following amino acid residues constitute the histone core?

• a. Lysine and Arginine
• b. Asparagine and Arginine
• c. Glutamine and Lysine
• d. Asparagine and Glutamine

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Correct Answer: a

Biology
54.

The number of chromosomes is reduced to half during:

• a. Mitosis
• b. Meiosis I
• c. Meiosis II
• d. Fertilization

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
55.

In 'The Evil Quartet', which cause is most important for species extinction?

• a. Alien species invasion
• b. Habitat loss and fragmentation
• c. Over exploitation
• d. Co-extinctions

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
56.

Carbohydrates are stored in the human body as:

• a. Starch
• b. Glycogen
• c. Cellulose
• d. Amylose

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
57.

Which hormone is used to speed up the malting process in brewing?

• a. Auxin
• b. Gibberellin
• c. Cytokinin
• d. Ethylene

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
58.

Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood would:

• a. Cause delayed clotting
• b. Prevent clotting
• c. Cause immediate clotting
• d. Destroy Hemoglobin

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
59.

A plant cell without a cell wall is called:

• a. Proplast
• b. Protoplast
• c. Nucleoplasm
• d. Explant

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
60.

Conservation of species in their natural habitat is:

• a. In situ
• b. Ex situ
• c. Cryopreservation
• d. Off-site

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Correct Answer: a

Biology
61.

During photorespiration, there occurs:

• a. Synthesis of sugar
• b. Utilization of ATP
• c. Synthesis of ATP
• d. Synthesis of NADPH

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
62.

Conjoint and closed vascular bundles are found in:

• a. Sunflower stem
• b. Maize stem
• c. Cucumber root
• d. Pea root

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
63.

Cardiac muscles are different from voluntary muscles because they are:

• a. Smooth
• b. Striated
• c. Involuntary
• d. Spindle shaped

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Correct Answer: c

Biology
64.

The wall layer of microsporangium that nourishes pollen grains is:

• a. Epidermis
• b. Endothecium
• c. Tapetum
• d. Middle layer

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Correct Answer: c

Biology
65.

Movement of ions against concentration gradient is:

• a. Active Transport
• b. Passive Transport
• c. Facilitated Diffusion
• d. Osmosis

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Correct Answer: a

Biology
66.

Remnants of nucellus persistent in seed is called:

• a. Endosperm
• b. Perisperm
• c. Scutellum
• d. Coleoptile

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
67.

Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes:

• a. Selaginella and Salvinia
• b. Psilotum and Equisetum
• c. Lycopodium and Selaginella
• d. Pteris and Adiantum

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Correct Answer: a

Biology
68.

A recessive allele is expressed in:

• a. Heterozygous condition only
• b. Homozygous condition only
• c. Both conditions
• d. F1 generation always

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
69.

Marijuana is extracted from:

• a. Cannabis sativa
• b. Ergot fungus
• c. Cocoa plant
• d. Poppy plant

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Correct Answer: a

Biology
70.

In humans, the secondary spermatocytes are formed after:

• a. Mitosis
• b. First meiotic division
• c. Second meiotic division
• d. Spermiogenesis

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
71.

Variation caused by mutations are:

• a. Small and directional
• b. Random and directionless
• c. Small and directionless
• d. Random and directional

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
72.

Which method is used to grow banana plants genetically similar to the parent?

• a. Regeneration
• b. Vegetative propagation
• c. Sexual reproduction
• d. Budding

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
73.

The thickness of the ozone layer is measured in:

• a. Decibels
• b. Dobson units
• c. Kilobase
• d. Micrometers

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
74.

Sea Anemone and Hermit Crab interaction is an example of:

• a. Mutualism
• b. Commensalism
• c. Parasitism
• d. Amensalism

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Correct Answer: b

Biology
75.

Tassels in the corn cob function to:

• a. Attract insects
• b. Trap pollen grains
• c. Protect seeds
• d. Aid in dispersal

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Correct Answer: b

English
76.

Choose the word which best expresses the antonym of 'MORBID':

• a. Healthy
• b. Liberal
• c. Progressive
• d. Stale

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Correct Answer: a

English
77.

Identify the suitable infinitive for the word 'sleeping':

• a. To asleep
• b. To sleep
• c. To be slept
• d. To sleeping

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Correct Answer: b

English
78.

Which of the following best expresses the meaning of 'EXORBITANT'?

• a. Threatening
• b. Excessive
• c. Ridiculous
• d. Ancient

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Correct Answer: b

English
79.

Identify the complex sentence:

• a. I know his residence.
• b. I know where he resides.
• c. He stole money and denied it.
• d. None of these

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Correct Answer: b

English
80.

Change the voice: 'The lock has not yet been repaired by the locksmith.'

• a. The locksmith has not repaired the lock yet.
• b. The locksmith is not repairing the lock.
• c. The locksmith did not repair the lock.
• d. Lock was not repaired.

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Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
81.

Florence Nightingale was born in:

• a. Germany
• b. Britain
• c. Italy
• d. France

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Correct Answer: c

Nursing Aptitude
82.

What is the theme for World Health Day 2025?

• a. My Health, My Right
• b. Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures
• c. Global Health for All
• d. Universal Coverage

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
83.

A nurse plays all major roles EXCEPT:

• a. Patient assessment
• b. Prescribing drugs
• c. Medication administration
• d. Educating patients

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Correct Answer: b

Nursing Aptitude
84.

Minimum standards for nursing education in India are set by:

• a. TNAI
• b. Indian Nursing Council (INC)
• c. UGC
• d. AICTE

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

Nursing Aptitude
85.

Which diagnostic tool is used specifically to assess the rhythm of the heart?

• a. EEG
• b. EMG
• c. ECG
• d. MRI

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Correct Answer: c

Nursing Aptitude
86.

Sushruta, the father of surgery, was born in:

• a. China
• b. India
• c. Egypt
• d. Babylonia

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Correct Answer: b

Nursing Aptitude
87.

The specialty focused on the diagnosis and treatment of cancer is:

• a. Oncology
• b. Neurology
• c. Dermatology
• d. Ophthalmology

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
88.

An outbreak of disease affecting a significant proportion of the world population is a/an:

• a. Pandemic
• b. Epidemic
• c. Endemic
• d. Epizootic

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Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
89.

Typhoid fever is commonly transmitted through the:

• a. Airborne route
• b. Faecal-oral route
• c. Blood transfusion
• d. Skin contact

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Correct Answer: b

Aptitude
90.

If you write down all numbers from 1 to 100, how many times do you write 3?

• a. 18
• b. 19
• c. 20
• d. 21

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Correct Answer: c

Aptitude
91.

A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?

• a. Nil
• b. 8
• c. 9
• d. 17

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Correct Answer: c

Nursing Aptitude
92.

World Health Day is celebrated annually on:

• a. April 7th
• b. May 12th
• c. June 5th
• d. March 24th

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
93.

Disaster Management includes which of the following?

• a. Mitigation
• b. Reconstruction
• c. Rehabilitation
• d. All of the above

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Correct Answer: d

English
94.

Choose the correctly spelt word:

• a. Contamporary
• b. Contemporary
• c. Contemperary
• d. Contempery

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

English
95.

Identify the error part: 'Reshma was (a)/ a daily wage worker (b)/ who gone to work (c)/ despite high fever (d).'

• a. (a)
• b. (b)
• c. (c)
• d. (d)

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

Aptitude
96.

A man walks 15m North, turns Left and walks 30m, then turns Right and walks 25m. Distance from start is:

• a. 50m
• b. 55m
• c. 60m
• d. 45m

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

Nursing Aptitude
97.

Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

• a. Influenza
• b. Cholera
• c. Cancer
• d. Measles

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

Nursing Aptitude
98.

Vitamin D deficiency causes:

• a. Scurvy
• b. Rickets
• c. Beriberi
• d. Night blindness

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

Nursing Aptitude
99.

A nurse overhears staff disrespecting a patient. Best action:

• a. Ignore it
• b. Confront in front of patient
• c. Report to supervisor
• d. Tell other colleagues

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

Nursing Aptitude
100.

The specialty focused on skin diseases is:

• a. Dermatology
• b. Ophthalmology
• c. Neurology
• d. Endocrinology

► Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Full Mock Test-2 with Answers

B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 1

Welcome to Set 2 of our highly anticipated PPMET 2026 Mock Test series. Test your concepts in Physics and Physical Chemistry below, and click "Show Answer" to verify your answers.

SECTION A: PHYSICS

1. The dimensional formula for the Universal Gravitational Constant (G) is:

• a. [M L² T^-2]
• b. [M^-1 L³ T^-2]
• c. [M L^-1 T^-2]
• d. [M^-1 L² T^-2]

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

2. A car is moving with a uniform velocity on a rough horizontal road. The net force acting on the car is:

• a. Zero
• b. Equal to the frictional force
• c. Greater than the frictional force
• d. Directed downwards

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

3. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value, its momentum will become:

• a. 4 times
• b. 2 times
• c. 8 times
• d. 16 times

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

4. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:

[Insert Diagram of Solid Sphere with Diameter Axis Here]

• a. (1/2) MR²
• b. (2/5) MR²
• c. (2/3) MR²
• d. (5/3) MR²

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

5. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) at the center of the earth is:

• a. 9.8 m/s²
• b. 4.9 m/s²
• c. Infinity
• d. Zero

Show Answer

Correct Answer: d

6. During an adiabatic process, which of the following quantities remains constant?

• a. Temperature
• b. Pressure
• c. Total heat (Entropy)
• d. Volume

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

7. The time period of a simple pendulum depends upon:

• a. Its length and acceleration due to gravity
• b. The mass of the bob
• c. The amplitude of oscillation
• d. The material of the bob

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

8. Sound waves traveling through air are inherently:

• a. Longitudinal waves
• b. Transverse waves
• c. Electromagnetic waves
• d. Stationary waves

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

9. The electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is:

• a. Maximum
• b. Minimum but non-zero
• c. Zero
• d. Infinite

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

10. Kirchhoff's first law (the junction rule) is a consequence of the conservation of:

• a. Energy
• b. Charge
• c. Momentum
• d. Mass

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

11. The SI unit of magnetic flux is the:

• a. Weber
• b. Tesla
• c. Gauss
• d. Henry

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

12. The power factor of a purely resistive alternating current (AC) circuit is:

• a. 0
• b. 1
• c. 0.5
• d. Infinity

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

13. The splitting of white light into its component colors upon passing through a prism is called:

• a. Diffraction
• b. Interference
• c. Dispersion
• d. Polarization

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

14. The brilliant colors often seen in thin soap bubbles are a result of:

• a. Refraction
• b. Interference
• c. Dispersion
• d. Scattering

Show Answer

Correct Answer: b

15. According to the theory of relativity and quantum mechanics, the rest mass of a photon is:

• a. Zero
• b. 1 amu
• c. 9.1 x 10^-31 kg
• d. Infinity

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

16. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the energy of an electron in the n^th orbit is proportional to:

• a. n
• b. n²
• c. 1/n
• d. 1/n²

Show Answer

Correct Answer: d

17. The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a single, heavier nucleus is called:

• a. Nuclear fission
• b. Nuclear fusion
• c. Alpha decay
• d. Gamma emission

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Correct Answer: b

18. A Zener diode is primarily designed to be used as a:

• a. Rectifier
• b. Amplifier
• c. Voltage regulator
• d. Oscillator

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Correct Answer: c

19. Raindrops acquire a spherical shape due to the property of:

• a. Viscosity
• b. Surface tension
• c. Atmospheric pressure
• d. Gravitational force

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Correct Answer: b

20. The percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed of a body are 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the estimation of its kinetic energy is:

• a. 5%
• b. 11%
• c. 8%
• d. 7%

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Correct Answer: c

SECTION B: CHEMISTRY (Questions 21 - 40)

21. The total number of atoms present in 0.1 mole of a tetraatomic gas is:

• a. 6.022 x 10²²
• b. 2.408 x 10²³
• c. 1.204 x 10²³
• d. 3.011 x 10²²

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Correct Answer: b

22. Which quantum number determines the three-dimensional shape of an atomic orbital?

• a. Principal quantum number (n)
• b. Azimuthal quantum number (l)
• c. Magnetic quantum number (m)
• d. Spin quantum number (s)

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Correct Answer: b

23. Based on VSEPR theory, the shape of the SF₆ molecule is:

[Insert Diagram of SF6 Molecule Here]

• a. Tetrahedral
• b. Trigonal bipyramidal
• c. Octahedral
• d. Square planar

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Correct Answer: c

24. What is the molality (m) of a solution prepared by dissolving 4 grams of NaOH in 500 grams of water?

• a. 0.2 m
• b. 0.1 m
• c. 0.5 m
• d. 0.02 m

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Correct Answer: a

25. An exothermic chemical reaction is always characterized by:

• a. A positive change in enthalpy (ΔH > 0)
• b. A negative change in enthalpy (ΔH < 0)
• c. Absorption of heat from the surroundings
• d. An increase in the activation energy

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Correct Answer: b

B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 2

Welcome to Part 2 of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section wraps up Chemistry and dives into the high-yield Biology concepts. Click "Show Answer" to check your knowledge.

SECTION B: CHEMISTRY (Continued)

26. The half-life of a first-order reaction is 69.3 seconds. What is its rate constant?

• a. 0.1 s^-1
• b. 0.01 s^-1
• c. 10 s^-1
• d. 0.001 s^-1

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Correct Answer: b

27. The standard reduction potentials of Zn²⁺/Zn and Cu²⁺/Cu are -0.76 V and +0.34 V respectively. The standard EMF of the Daniel cell is:

• a. 0.42 V
• b. -1.10 V
• c. 1.10 V
• d. -0.42 V

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Correct Answer: c

28. The boiling point elevation constant (K_b) of a solvent depends on:

• a. The nature of the solute
• b. The nature of the solvent
• c. The concentration of the solution
• d. The volume of the solution

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Correct Answer: b

29. Which of the following is an intensive property?

• a. Mass
• b. Volume
• c. Temperature
• d. Heat capacity

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Correct Answer: c

30. The geometry of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] is:

• a. Square planar
• b. Tetrahedral
• c. Octahedral
• d. Trigonal bipyramidal

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Correct Answer: b

31. Which of the following transition metals exhibits the highest oxidation state in its compounds?

• a. Iron (Fe)
• b. Chromium (Cr)
• c. Manganese (Mn)
• d. Copper (Cu)

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Correct Answer: c

32. Identify the major product of the reaction when bromoethane is treated with alcoholic KOH:

• a. Ethanol
• b. Ethane
• c. Ethene
• d. Ethyne

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Correct Answer: c

33. Phenol on heating with zinc dust gives:

• a. Benzene
• b. Toluene
• c. Benzaldehyde
• d. Benzoic acid

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Correct Answer: a

34. Which of the following compounds gives a positive silver mirror test with Tollens' reagent?

• a. Acetone
• b. Acetic acid
• c. Formaldehyde
• d. Ethyl acetate

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Correct Answer: c

35. The reagent used to clearly distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines is:

• a. Lucas reagent
• b. Hinsberg's reagent
• c. Tollens' reagent
• d. Fehling's solution

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Correct Answer: b

36. The electrophile involved in the nitration of a benzene ring is:

• a. NO₂^-
• b. NO⁺
• c. NO₂⁺
• d. NO₃^-

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Correct Answer: c

37. The linkage connecting the monosaccharide units in a polysaccharide chain is called:

• a. Peptide linkage
• b. Phosphodiester linkage
• c. Glycosidic linkage
• d. Hydrogen bond

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Correct Answer: c

38. Which of the following is categorized as a water-soluble vitamin?

• a. Vitamin A
• b. Vitamin D
• c. Vitamin E
• d. Vitamin C

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Correct Answer: d

39. Ethylene Diamine Tetraacetic Acid (EDTA) is an example of a:

• a. Monodentate ligand
• b. Bidentate ligand
• c. Tetradentate ligand
• d. Hexadentate ligand

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Correct Answer: d

40. The process of converting an alkyl halide into an alcohol using aqueous NaOH is an example of:

• a. Electrophilic addition
• b. Nucleophilic substitution
• c. Elimination
• d. Free radical substitution

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Correct Answer: b

SECTION C: BIOLOGY (Questions 41 - 60)

41. The vital capacity of the human lung is mathematically represented as:

• a. Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume
• b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume
• c. Total Lung Capacity - Tidal Volume
• d. Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume

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Correct Answer: b

42. Which of the following leukocytes are the most abundant in healthy human blood?

• a. Lymphocytes
• b. Monocytes
• c. Eosinophils
• d. Neutrophils

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Correct Answer: d

43. The fundamental functional unit of the human kidney is the:

• a. Neuron
• b. Nephron
• c. Glomerulus
• d. Bowman's capsule

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Correct Answer: b

44. A male with color blindness (an X-linked recessive trait) marries a female with normal vision (homozygous). What is the probability of their sons being color blind?

• a. 0%
• b. 25%
• c. 50%
• d. 100%

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Correct Answer: a

45. The universally accepted "Fluid Mosaic Model" of the cell membrane was proposed by:

• a. Watson and Crick
• b. Schleiden and Schwann
• c. Singer and Nicolson
• d. Robert Hooke

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Correct Answer: c

46. The symbiotic interaction between a fungus and the roots of higher plants (Mycorrhiza) is an example of:

• a. Commensalism
• b. Mutualism
• c. Parasitism
• d. Amensalism

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Correct Answer: b

47. The primary CO₂ acceptor molecule in the C4 photosynthetic pathway is:

• a. Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
• b. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
• c. Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
• d. Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)

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Correct Answer: b

48. During the menstrual cycle, the rapid surge of which hormone directly leads to ovulation?

• a. Estrogen
• b. Progesterone
• c. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
• d. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

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Correct Answer: d

49. In evolutionary biology, analogous structures (like the wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bird) are a result of:

• a. Divergent evolution
• b. Convergent evolution
• c. Adaptive radiation
• d. Artificial selection

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Correct Answer: b

50. Which type of antibody is capable of crossing the placenta and providing passive immunity to the developing fetus?

• a. IgA
• b. IgM
• c. IgG
• d. IgE

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Correct Answer: c

B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 3

Welcome to Part 3 of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section concludes the Biology portion and begins the English Proficiency section. Click "Show Answer" to check your knowledge.

SECTION C: BIOLOGY (Continued)

51. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing but is crucial for maintaining body balance and posture?

• a. Ear drum (Tympanic membrane)
• b. Eustachian tube
• c. Vestibular apparatus
• d. Cochlea

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Correct Answer: c

52. The fatal condition known as 'Erythroblastosis fetalis' can occur due to Rh incompatibility between:

• a. Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative fetus
• b. Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus
• c. Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive fetus
• d. Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative fetus

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Correct Answer: b

53. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine always pairs with thymine via how many hydrogen bonds?

• a. Two
• b. Three
• c. Four
• d. One

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Correct Answer: a

54. Which of the following is an example of an ex-situ conservation strategy?

• a. National Parks
• b. Seed banks
• c. Biosphere reserves
• d. Wildlife sanctuaries

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Correct Answer: b

55. The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine, responsible for the 'fight or flight' response, are secreted by the:

• a. Adrenal cortex
• b. Thyroid gland
• c. Adrenal medulla
• d. Pancreas

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Correct Answer: c

56. Which vector is responsible for the transmission of the Plasmodium parasite causing Malaria?

• a. Female Anopheles mosquito
• b. Male Anopheles mosquito
• c. Aedes aegypti mosquito
• d. Culex mosquito

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Correct Answer: a

57. The theory of 'Natural Selection' as a mechanism for evolution was proposed by:

• a. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
• b. Gregor Mendel
• c. Hugo de Vries
• d. Charles Darwin

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Correct Answer: d

58. In angiosperms, the process of double fertilization results in the formation of:

• a. Haploid zygote and diploid endosperm
• b. Diploid zygote and diploid primary endosperm nucleus
• c. Diploid zygote and triploid primary endosperm nucleus
• d. Triploid zygote and diploid endosperm

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Correct Answer: c

59. Which of the following is considered a universal 'start' codon during protein translation?

• a. AUG
• b. UAA
• c. UAG
• d. UGA

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Correct Answer: a

60. The restriction endonuclease EcoRI specifically cuts DNA between which two bases?

• a. C and T in CTTAAG
• b. G and A in GAATTC
• c. A and T in GAATTC
• d. G and C in GGCC

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Correct Answer: b

SECTION D: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (Questions 61 - 75)

61. Fill in the blank with the correct verb:
Neither the manager nor the employees _____ aware of the new hospital policy.

• a. is
• b. has
• c. were
• d. was

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Correct Answer: c

62. Choose the correct synonym for the word: Benevolent

• a. Cruel
• b. Kind
• c. Greedy
• d. Ignorant

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Correct Answer: b

63. Find the antonym for the word: Pessimistic

• a. Optimistic
• b. Hopeless
• c. Depressed
• d. Anxious

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Correct Answer: a

64. Identify the correct preposition:
She has been suffering _____ a severe fever since Monday.

• a. with
• b. by
• c. of
• d. from

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Correct Answer: d

65. What is the meaning of the idiom: "To bite the bullet"?

• a. To attack someone physically
• b. To force yourself to perform a difficult or unpleasant action
• c. To fail miserably at a task
• d. To run away from a dangerous situation

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Correct Answer: b

66. Select the correctly spelt word:

• a. Vacination
• b. Vaccinasion
• c. Vaccination
• d. Vacinnation

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Correct Answer: c

67. Give one word substitution for: "A person who does not believe in the existence of God."

• a. Atheist
• b. Theist
• c. Agnostic
• d. Heretic

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Correct Answer: a

68. Change the voice of the given sentence:
The doctor prescribed a new medicine.

• a. A new medicine is prescribed by the doctor.
• b. A new medicine has been prescribed by the doctor.
• c. A new medicine was being prescribed by the doctor.
• d. A new medicine was prescribed by the doctor.

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Correct Answer: d

69. Spot the grammatical error in the following sentence:
He is one of the best doctor (a) / in the entire (b) / city (c) / No error (d).

• a. (a)
• b. (b)
• c. (c)
• d. (d)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a (Explanation: The phrase "one of the" must be followed by a plural noun, so it should be "doctors")

70. Choose the appropriate article to fill in the blank:
She is _____ European by birth, but lives in India.

• a. a
• b. an
• c. the
• d. no article required

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a (Explanation: "European" starts with a consonant 'Y' sound, so 'a' is used)

71. Fill in the blank with the correct tense:
By the time the ambulance arrived, the patient _____.

• a. dies
• b. died
• c. had died
• d. is dying

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Correct Answer: c

72. Identify the type of sentence:
Because it was raining heavily, the medical camp was postponed.

• a. Simple sentence
• b. Complex sentence
• c. Compound sentence
• d. Declarative sentence

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Correct Answer: b

73. Choose the correct homophone:
The nurse asked the patient to _____ his arm for the injection.

• a. bare
• b. bear
• c. beer
• d. boar

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Correct Answer: a

74. Complete the conditional sentence:
If I _____ a doctor, I would treat the poor for free.

• a. am
• b. were
• c. was
• d. will be

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Correct Answer: b

75. Select the correct indirect speech for the given sentence:
She said, "I am going to the clinic."

• a. She said that she is going to the clinic.
• b. She says that she was going to the clinic.
• c. She said that she was going to the clinic.
• d. She told she was going to the clinic.

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 4

Welcome to the final part of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section finishes English Proficiency and introduces the vital Nursing Aptitude questions. Click "Show Answer" to check your readiness!

SECTION D: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (Continued)

76. Change the voice of the given sentence:
The nurse has bandaged the patient's wound.

• a. The patient's wound is bandaged by the nurse.
• b. The patient's wound had been bandaged by the nurse.
• c. The patient's wound has been bandaged by the nurse.
• d. The patient's wound was being bandaged by the nurse.

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

77. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom:
Since his surgery, my grandfather has been feeling a bit under the weather.

• a. Feeling extremely cold
• b. Feeling ill or unwell
• c. Feeling very energetic
• d. Enjoying the rainy season

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Correct Answer: b

78. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition:
The old hospital building is infested _____ rats and cockroaches.

• a. by
• b. from
• c. in
• d. with

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Correct Answer: d

79. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the part with the error:
He don't (a) / know the (b) / way to the (c) / emergency ward (d).

• a. (a)
• b. (b)
• c. (c)
• d. (d)

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a (Explanation: The singular pronoun "He" should take "doesn't" instead of "don't")

80. Choose the word with the correct spelling:

• a. Thermometer
• b. Thermomiter
• c. Tharmometer
• d. Thermametor

Show Answer

Correct Answer: a

SECTION E: APTITUDE FOR NURSING (Questions 81 - 100)

81. What is the primary focus of 'Palliative Care' in nursing?

• a. Curing infectious diseases
• b. Relieving pain and improving the quality of life for terminally ill patients
• c. Providing surgical interventions
• d. Administering childhood vaccinations

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Correct Answer: b

82. In the nursing profession, what does the abbreviation TNAI stand for?

• a. Trained Nurses Association of India
• b. Technical Nursing Academy of India
• c. Temporary Nurses Agency of India
• d. Trained Nursing Auxiliaries of India

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Correct Answer: a

83. Posting a patient's medical details or pictures on social media without permission is a direct violation of which ethical nursing principle?

• a. Beneficence
• b. Confidentiality and Privacy
• c. Justice
• d. Autonomy

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Correct Answer: b

84. What is the optimal blood pressure reading for a healthy young adult?

• a. 140/90 mmHg
• b. 100/60 mmHg
• c. 120/80 mmHg
• d. 160/100 mmHg

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Correct Answer: c

85. In basic life support, what does the acronym CPR stand for?

• a. Cardiac Pulse Revival
• b. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
• c. Critical Patient Recovery
• d. Coronary Pulmonary Rescue

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Correct Answer: b

86. The immediate first-aid treatment for a minor first-degree thermal burn is to:

• a. Apply ice directly to the wound
• b. Apply butter or oil over the burn
• c. Hold the burned area under cool running water
• d. Pop any blisters that form

Show Answer

Correct Answer: c

87. In biomedical waste management, used infected syringes and infected plastic IV bottles are disposed of in which color-coded bin?

• a. Yellow bin
• b. Red bin
• c. Black bin
• d. Blue bin

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Correct Answer: b

88. The medical term 'Tachycardia' refers to:

• a. Abnormally slow breathing
• b. High blood pressure
• c. Abnormally fast heart rate
• d. Low blood sugar

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Correct Answer: c

89. The process of giving Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) is primarily intended to treat:

• a. Malnutrition
• b. High fever
• c. Dehydration due to diarrhea
• d. Vitamin deficiencies

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Correct Answer: c

90. Which pathogen is responsible for causing Tuberculosis (TB)?

• a. Plasmodium falciparum
• b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
• c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• d. Salmonella typhi

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Correct Answer: c

91. The primary function of a State Nursing Council (SNC) is to:

• a. Determine the salary of hospital nurses
• b. Manage the national healthcare budget
• c. Register nurses and midwives to practice legally in the state
• d. Supply medications to pharmacies

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Correct Answer: c

92. In nursing ethics, the concept of 'Informed Consent' ensures that:

• a. The doctor can make all decisions for the patient
• b. The patient fully understands the treatment, risks, and alternatives before agreeing
• c. The family decides the treatment without telling the patient
• d. The hospital is protected from financial loss

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Correct Answer: b

93. A diet severely deficient in Iron primarily leads to which medical condition?

• a. Scurvy
• b. Goiter
• c. Anemia
• d. Rickets

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Correct Answer: c

94. World AIDS Day is observed globally every year on:

• a. April 7th
• b. May 12th
• c. December 1st
• d. October 10th

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Correct Answer: c

95. The medical specialty dealing specifically with the health and care of elderly people is known as:

• a. Pediatrics
• b. Geriatrics
• c. Obstetrics
• d. Oncology

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Correct Answer: b

96. Administration of insulin injections is the standard treatment for a patient suffering from:

• a. Hypertension
• b. Asthma
• c. Diabetes Mellitus
• d. Hypothyroidism

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Correct Answer: c

97. Florence Nightingale, the pioneer of modern nursing, was born in the year:

• a. 1820
• b. 1850
• c. 1900
• d. 1805

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Correct Answer: a

98. A patient is experiencing severe difficulty in breathing. What is the medical term for this condition?

• a. Apnea
• b. Dyspnea
• c. Bradycardia
• d. Hypoxia

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Correct Answer: b

99. Which of the following is considered a vital sign that a nurse must monitor regularly?

• a. Hair growth rate
• b. Eye color
• c. Respiratory rate
• d. Nail length

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Correct Answer: c

100. During a triage in a disaster situation, a patient given a "Black" tag represents:

• a. Minor injuries, can wait for treatment
• b. Immediate, life-threatening injuries requiring urgent care
• c. Deceased or injuries so severe that survival is unlikely
• d. Needs delayed care, stable for now

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Correct Answer: c