B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 1
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 1
Welcome to Set 2 of our highly anticipated PPMET 2026 Mock Test series. Test your concepts in Physics and Physical Chemistry below, and click "Show Answer" to verify your answers.
SECTION A: PHYSICS
1. The dimensional formula for the Universal Gravitational Constant (G) is:
- a. [M L2 T-2]
- b. [M-1 L3 T-2]
- c. [M L-1 T-2]
- d. [M-1 L2 T-2]
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Correct Answer: b
2. A car is moving with a uniform velocity on a rough horizontal road. The net force acting on the car is:
- a. Zero
- b. Equal to the frictional force
- c. Greater than the frictional force
- d. Directed downwards
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Correct Answer: a
3. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value, its momentum will become:
- a. 4 times
- b. 2 times
- c. 8 times
- d. 16 times
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Correct Answer: b
4. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:
[Insert Diagram of Solid Sphere with Diameter Axis Here]
- a. (1/2) MR2
- b. (2/5) MR2
- c. (2/3) MR2
- d. (5/3) MR2
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Correct Answer: b
5. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) at the center of the earth is:
- a. 9.8 m/s2
- b. 4.9 m/s2
- c. Infinity
- d. Zero
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Correct Answer: d
6. During an adiabatic process, which of the following quantities remains constant?
- a. Temperature
- b. Pressure
- c. Total heat (Entropy)
- d. Volume
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Correct Answer: c
7. The time period of a simple pendulum depends upon:
- a. Its length and acceleration due to gravity
- b. The mass of the bob
- c. The amplitude of oscillation
- d. The material of the bob
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Correct Answer: a
8. Sound waves traveling through air are inherently:
- a. Longitudinal waves
- b. Transverse waves
- c. Electromagnetic waves
- d. Stationary waves
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Correct Answer: a
9. The electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is:
- a. Maximum
- b. Minimum but non-zero
- c. Zero
- d. Infinite
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Correct Answer: c
10. Kirchhoff's first law (the junction rule) is a consequence of the conservation of:
- a. Energy
- b. Charge
- c. Momentum
- d. Mass
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Correct Answer: b
11. The SI unit of magnetic flux is the:
- a. Weber
- b. Tesla
- c. Gauss
- d. Henry
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Correct Answer: a
12. The power factor of a purely resistive alternating current (AC) circuit is:
- a. 0
- b. 1
- c. 0.5
- d. Infinity
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Correct Answer: b
13. The splitting of white light into its component colors upon passing through a prism is called:
- a. Diffraction
- b. Interference
- c. Dispersion
- d. Polarization
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Correct Answer: c
14. The brilliant colors often seen in thin soap bubbles are a result of:
- a. Refraction
- b. Interference
- c. Dispersion
- d. Scattering
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Correct Answer: b
15. According to the theory of relativity and quantum mechanics, the rest mass of a photon is:
- a. Zero
- b. 1 amu
- c. 9.1 x 10-31 kg
- d. Infinity
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Correct Answer: a
16. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the energy of an electron in the nth orbit is proportional to:
- a. n
- b. n2
- c. 1/n
- d. 1/n2
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Correct Answer: d
17. The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a single, heavier nucleus is called:
- a. Nuclear fission
- b. Nuclear fusion
- c. Alpha decay
- d. Gamma emission
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Correct Answer: b
18. A Zener diode is primarily designed to be used as a:
- a. Rectifier
- b. Amplifier
- c. Voltage regulator
- d. Oscillator
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Correct Answer: c
19. Raindrops acquire a spherical shape due to the property of:
- a. Viscosity
- b. Surface tension
- c. Atmospheric pressure
- d. Gravitational force
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Correct Answer: b
20. The percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed of a body are 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the estimation of its kinetic energy is:
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Correct Answer: c
SECTION B: CHEMISTRY (Questions 21 - 40)
21. The total number of atoms present in 0.1 mole of a tetraatomic gas is:
- a. 6.022 x 1022
- b. 2.408 x 1023
- c. 1.204 x 1023
- d. 3.011 x 1022
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Correct Answer: b
22. Which quantum number determines the three-dimensional shape of an atomic orbital?
- a. Principal quantum number (n)
- b. Azimuthal quantum number (l)
- c. Magnetic quantum number (m)
- d. Spin quantum number (s)
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Correct Answer: b
23. Based on VSEPR theory, the shape of the SF6 molecule is:
[Insert Diagram of SF6 Molecule Here]
- a. Tetrahedral
- b. Trigonal bipyramidal
- c. Octahedral
- d. Square planar
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Correct Answer: c
24. What is the molality (m) of a solution prepared by dissolving 4 grams of NaOH in 500 grams of water?
- a. 0.2 m
- b. 0.1 m
- c. 0.5 m
- d. 0.02 m
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Correct Answer: a
25. An exothermic chemical reaction is always characterized by:
- a. A positive change in enthalpy (ΔH > 0)
- b. A negative change in enthalpy (ΔH < 0)
- c. Absorption of heat from the surroundings
- d. An increase in the activation energy
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Correct Answer: b
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 2
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 2
Welcome to Part 2 of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section wraps up Chemistry and dives into the high-yield Biology concepts. Click "Show Answer" to check your knowledge.
SECTION B: CHEMISTRY (Continued)
26. The half-life of a first-order reaction is 69.3 seconds. What is its rate constant?
- a. 0.1 s-1
- b. 0.01 s-1
- c. 10 s-1
- d. 0.001 s-1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: b
27. The standard reduction potentials of Zn2+/Zn and Cu2+/Cu are -0.76 V and +0.34 V respectively. The standard EMF of the Daniel cell is:
- a. 0.42 V
- b. -1.10 V
- c. 1.10 V
- d. -0.42 V
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Correct Answer: c
28. The boiling point elevation constant (Kb) of a solvent depends on:
- a. The nature of the solute
- b. The nature of the solvent
- c. The concentration of the solution
- d. The volume of the solution
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Correct Answer: b
29. Which of the following is an intensive property?
- a. Mass
- b. Volume
- c. Temperature
- d. Heat capacity
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Correct Answer: c
30. The geometry of the complex [Ni(CO)4] is:
- a. Square planar
- b. Tetrahedral
- c. Octahedral
- d. Trigonal bipyramidal
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Correct Answer: b
31. Which of the following transition metals exhibits the highest oxidation state in its compounds?
- a. Iron (Fe)
- b. Chromium (Cr)
- c. Manganese (Mn)
- d. Copper (Cu)
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Correct Answer: c
32. Identify the major product of the reaction when bromoethane is treated with alcoholic KOH:
- a. Ethanol
- b. Ethane
- c. Ethene
- d. Ethyne
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Correct Answer: c
33. Phenol on heating with zinc dust gives:
- a. Benzene
- b. Toluene
- c. Benzaldehyde
- d. Benzoic acid
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Correct Answer: a
34. Which of the following compounds gives a positive silver mirror test with Tollens' reagent?
- a. Acetone
- b. Acetic acid
- c. Formaldehyde
- d. Ethyl acetate
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Correct Answer: c
35. The reagent used to clearly distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines is:
- a. Lucas reagent
- b. Hinsberg's reagent
- c. Tollens' reagent
- d. Fehling's solution
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Correct Answer: b
36. The electrophile involved in the nitration of a benzene ring is:
- a. NO2-
- b. NO+
- c. NO2+
- d. NO3-
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Correct Answer: c
37. The linkage connecting the monosaccharide units in a polysaccharide chain is called:
- a. Peptide linkage
- b. Phosphodiester linkage
- c. Glycosidic linkage
- d. Hydrogen bond
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Correct Answer: c
38. Which of the following is categorized as a water-soluble vitamin?
- a. Vitamin A
- b. Vitamin D
- c. Vitamin E
- d. Vitamin C
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Correct Answer: d
39. Ethylene Diamine Tetraacetic Acid (EDTA) is an example of a:
- a. Monodentate ligand
- b. Bidentate ligand
- c. Tetradentate ligand
- d. Hexadentate ligand
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Correct Answer: d
40. The process of converting an alkyl halide into an alcohol using aqueous NaOH is an example of:
- a. Electrophilic addition
- b. Nucleophilic substitution
- c. Elimination
- d. Free radical substitution
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Correct Answer: b
SECTION C: BIOLOGY (Questions 41 - 60)
41. The vital capacity of the human lung is mathematically represented as:
- a. Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume
- b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume
- c. Total Lung Capacity - Tidal Volume
- d. Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
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Correct Answer: b
42. Which of the following leukocytes are the most abundant in healthy human blood?
- a. Lymphocytes
- b. Monocytes
- c. Eosinophils
- d. Neutrophils
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Correct Answer: d
43. The fundamental functional unit of the human kidney is the:
- a. Neuron
- b. Nephron
- c. Glomerulus
- d. Bowman's capsule
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Correct Answer: b
44. A male with color blindness (an X-linked recessive trait) marries a female with normal vision (homozygous). What is the probability of their sons being color blind?
- a. 0%
- b. 25%
- c. 50%
- d. 100%
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Correct Answer: a
45. The universally accepted "Fluid Mosaic Model" of the cell membrane was proposed by:
- a. Watson and Crick
- b. Schleiden and Schwann
- c. Singer and Nicolson
- d. Robert Hooke
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Correct Answer: c
46. The symbiotic interaction between a fungus and the roots of higher plants (Mycorrhiza) is an example of:
- a. Commensalism
- b. Mutualism
- c. Parasitism
- d. Amensalism
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Correct Answer: b
47. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in the C4 photosynthetic pathway is:
- a. Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
- b. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
- c. Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
- d. Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
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Correct Answer: b
48. During the menstrual cycle, the rapid surge of which hormone directly leads to ovulation?
- a. Estrogen
- b. Progesterone
- c. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
- d. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
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Correct Answer: d
49. In evolutionary biology, analogous structures (like the wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bird) are a result of:
- a. Divergent evolution
- b. Convergent evolution
- c. Adaptive radiation
- d. Artificial selection
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Correct Answer: b
50. Which type of antibody is capable of crossing the placenta and providing passive immunity to the developing fetus?
- a. IgA
- b. IgM
- c. IgG
- d. IgE
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Correct Answer: c
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 3
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 3
Welcome to Part 3 of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section concludes the Biology portion and begins the English Proficiency section. Click "Show Answer" to check your knowledge.
SECTION C: BIOLOGY (Continued)
51. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing but is crucial for maintaining body balance and posture?
- a. Ear drum (Tympanic membrane)
- b. Eustachian tube
- c. Vestibular apparatus
- d. Cochlea
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Correct Answer: c
52. The fatal condition known as 'Erythroblastosis fetalis' can occur due to Rh incompatibility between:
- a. Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative fetus
- b. Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus
- c. Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive fetus
- d. Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative fetus
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Correct Answer: b
53. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine always pairs with thymine via how many hydrogen bonds?
- a. Two
- b. Three
- c. Four
- d. One
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Correct Answer: a
54. Which of the following is an example of an ex-situ conservation strategy?
- a. National Parks
- b. Seed banks
- c. Biosphere reserves
- d. Wildlife sanctuaries
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Correct Answer: b
55. The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine, responsible for the 'fight or flight' response, are secreted by the:
- a. Adrenal cortex
- b. Thyroid gland
- c. Adrenal medulla
- d. Pancreas
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Correct Answer: c
56. Which vector is responsible for the transmission of the Plasmodium parasite causing Malaria?
- a. Female Anopheles mosquito
- b. Male Anopheles mosquito
- c. Aedes aegypti mosquito
- d. Culex mosquito
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Correct Answer: a
57. The theory of 'Natural Selection' as a mechanism for evolution was proposed by:
- a. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
- b. Gregor Mendel
- c. Hugo de Vries
- d. Charles Darwin
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Correct Answer: d
58. In angiosperms, the process of double fertilization results in the formation of:
- a. Haploid zygote and diploid endosperm
- b. Diploid zygote and diploid primary endosperm nucleus
- c. Diploid zygote and triploid primary endosperm nucleus
- d. Triploid zygote and diploid endosperm
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Correct Answer: c
59. Which of the following is considered a universal 'start' codon during protein translation?
- a. AUG
- b. UAA
- c. UAG
- d. UGA
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Correct Answer: a
60. The restriction endonuclease EcoRI specifically cuts DNA between which two bases?
- a. C and T in CTTAAG
- b. G and A in GAATTC
- c. A and T in GAATTC
- d. G and C in GGCC
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Correct Answer: b
SECTION D: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (Questions 61 - 75)
61. Fill in the blank with the correct verb:
Neither the manager nor the employees _____ aware of the new hospital policy.
- a. is
- b. has
- c. were
- d. was
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Correct Answer: c
62. Choose the correct synonym for the word: Benevolent
- a. Cruel
- b. Kind
- c. Greedy
- d. Ignorant
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Correct Answer: b
63. Find the antonym for the word: Pessimistic
- a. Optimistic
- b. Hopeless
- c. Depressed
- d. Anxious
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Correct Answer: a
64. Identify the correct preposition:
She has been suffering _____ a severe fever since Monday.
- a. with
- b. by
- c. of
- d. from
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Correct Answer: d
65. What is the meaning of the idiom: "To bite the bullet"?
- a. To attack someone physically
- b. To force yourself to perform a difficult or unpleasant action
- c. To fail miserably at a task
- d. To run away from a dangerous situation
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Correct Answer: b
66. Select the correctly spelt word:
- a. Vacination
- b. Vaccinasion
- c. Vaccination
- d. Vacinnation
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Correct Answer: c
67. Give one word substitution for: "A person who does not believe in the existence of God."
- a. Atheist
- b. Theist
- c. Agnostic
- d. Heretic
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Correct Answer: a
68. Change the voice of the given sentence:
The doctor prescribed a new medicine.
- a. A new medicine is prescribed by the doctor.
- b. A new medicine has been prescribed by the doctor.
- c. A new medicine was being prescribed by the doctor.
- d. A new medicine was prescribed by the doctor.
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Correct Answer: d
69. Spot the grammatical error in the following sentence:
He is one of the best doctor (a) / in the entire (b) / city (c) / No error (d).
- a. (a)
- b. (b)
- c. (c)
- d. (d)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a (Explanation: The phrase "one of the" must be followed by a plural noun, so it should be "doctors")
70. Choose the appropriate article to fill in the blank:
She is _____ European by birth, but lives in India.
- a. a
- b. an
- c. the
- d. no article required
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Correct Answer: a (Explanation: "European" starts with a consonant 'Y' sound, so 'a' is used)
71. Fill in the blank with the correct tense:
By the time the ambulance arrived, the patient _____.
- a. dies
- b. died
- c. had died
- d. is dying
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Correct Answer: c
72. Identify the type of sentence:
Because it was raining heavily, the medical camp was postponed.
- a. Simple sentence
- b. Complex sentence
- c. Compound sentence
- d. Declarative sentence
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Correct Answer: b
73. Choose the correct homophone:
The nurse asked the patient to _____ his arm for the injection.
- a. bare
- b. bear
- c. beer
- d. boar
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Correct Answer: a
74. Complete the conditional sentence:
If I _____ a doctor, I would treat the poor for free.
- a. am
- b. were
- c. was
- d. will be
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Correct Answer: b
75. Select the correct indirect speech for the given sentence:
She said, "I am going to the clinic."
- a. She said that she is going to the clinic.
- b. She says that she was going to the clinic.
- c. She said that she was going to the clinic.
- d. She told she was going to the clinic.
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Correct Answer: c
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 4
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2026 Mock Test Set 2 - Part 4
Welcome to the final part of our Set 2 Mock Test. This section finishes English Proficiency and introduces the vital Nursing Aptitude questions. Click "Show Answer" to check your readiness!
SECTION D: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (Continued)
76. Change the voice of the given sentence:
The nurse has bandaged the patient's wound.
- a. The patient's wound is bandaged by the nurse.
- b. The patient's wound had been bandaged by the nurse.
- c. The patient's wound has been bandaged by the nurse.
- d. The patient's wound was being bandaged by the nurse.
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Correct Answer: c
77. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom:
Since his surgery, my grandfather has been feeling a bit under the weather.
- a. Feeling extremely cold
- b. Feeling ill or unwell
- c. Feeling very energetic
- d. Enjoying the rainy season
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Correct Answer: b
78. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition:
The old hospital building is infested _____ rats and cockroaches.
- a. by
- b. from
- c. in
- d. with
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Correct Answer: d
79. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the part with the error:
He don't (a) / know the (b) / way to the (c) / emergency ward (d).
- a. (a)
- b. (b)
- c. (c)
- d. (d)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a (Explanation: The singular pronoun "He" should take "doesn't" instead of "don't")
80. Choose the word with the correct spelling:
- a. Thermometer
- b. Thermomiter
- c. Tharmometer
- d. Thermametor
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Correct Answer: a
SECTION E: APTITUDE FOR NURSING (Questions 81 - 100)
81. What is the primary focus of 'Palliative Care' in nursing?
- a. Curing infectious diseases
- b. Relieving pain and improving the quality of life for terminally ill patients
- c. Providing surgical interventions
- d. Administering childhood vaccinations
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Correct Answer: b
82. In the nursing profession, what does the abbreviation TNAI stand for?
- a. Trained Nurses Association of India
- b. Technical Nursing Academy of India
- c. Temporary Nurses Agency of India
- d. Trained Nursing Auxiliaries of India
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Correct Answer: a
83. Posting a patient's medical details or pictures on social media without permission is a direct violation of which ethical nursing principle?
- a. Beneficence
- b. Confidentiality and Privacy
- c. Justice
- d. Autonomy
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Correct Answer: b
84. What is the optimal blood pressure reading for a healthy young adult?
- a. 140/90 mmHg
- b. 100/60 mmHg
- c. 120/80 mmHg
- d. 160/100 mmHg
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Correct Answer: c
85. In basic life support, what does the acronym CPR stand for?
- a. Cardiac Pulse Revival
- b. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
- c. Critical Patient Recovery
- d. Coronary Pulmonary Rescue
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Correct Answer: b
86. The immediate first-aid treatment for a minor first-degree thermal burn is to:
- a. Apply ice directly to the wound
- b. Apply butter or oil over the burn
- c. Hold the burned area under cool running water
- d. Pop any blisters that form
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Correct Answer: c
87. In biomedical waste management, used infected syringes and infected plastic IV bottles are disposed of in which color-coded bin?
- a. Yellow bin
- b. Red bin
- c. Black bin
- d. Blue bin
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Correct Answer: b
88. The medical term 'Tachycardia' refers to:
- a. Abnormally slow breathing
- b. High blood pressure
- c. Abnormally fast heart rate
- d. Low blood sugar
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Correct Answer: c
89. The process of giving Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) is primarily intended to treat:
- a. Malnutrition
- b. High fever
- c. Dehydration due to diarrhea
- d. Vitamin deficiencies
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Correct Answer: c
90. Which pathogen is responsible for causing Tuberculosis (TB)?
- a. Plasmodium falciparum
- b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
- c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- d. Salmonella typhi
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Correct Answer: c
91. The primary function of a State Nursing Council (SNC) is to:
- a. Determine the salary of hospital nurses
- b. Manage the national healthcare budget
- c. Register nurses and midwives to practice legally in the state
- d. Supply medications to pharmacies
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Correct Answer: c
92. In nursing ethics, the concept of 'Informed Consent' ensures that:
- a. The doctor can make all decisions for the patient
- b. The patient fully understands the treatment, risks, and alternatives before agreeing
- c. The family decides the treatment without telling the patient
- d. The hospital is protected from financial loss
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Correct Answer: b
93. A diet severely deficient in Iron primarily leads to which medical condition?
- a. Scurvy
- b. Goiter
- c. Anemia
- d. Rickets
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Correct Answer: c
94. World AIDS Day is observed globally every year on:
- a. April 7th
- b. May 12th
- c. December 1st
- d. October 10th
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Correct Answer: c
95. The medical specialty dealing specifically with the health and care of elderly people is known as:
- a. Pediatrics
- b. Geriatrics
- c. Obstetrics
- d. Oncology
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Correct Answer: b
96. Administration of insulin injections is the standard treatment for a patient suffering from:
- a. Hypertension
- b. Asthma
- c. Diabetes Mellitus
- d. Hypothyroidism
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Correct Answer: c
97. Florence Nightingale, the pioneer of modern nursing, was born in the year:
- a. 1820
- b. 1850
- c. 1900
- d. 1805
Show Answer
Correct Answer: a
98. A patient is experiencing severe difficulty in breathing. What is the medical term for this condition?
- a. Apnea
- b. Dyspnea
- c. Bradycardia
- d. Hypoxia
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Correct Answer: b
99. Which of the following is considered a vital sign that a nurse must monitor regularly?
- a. Hair growth rate
- b. Eye color
- c. Respiratory rate
- d. Nail length
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Correct Answer: c
100. During a triage in a disaster situation, a patient given a "Black" tag represents:
- a. Minor injuries, can wait for treatment
- b. Immediate, life-threatening injuries requiring urgent care
- c. Deceased or injuries so severe that survival is unlikely
- d. Needs delayed care, stable for now
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Correct Answer: c