CLASS XII PHYSICS SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION • SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

CLASS XII PHYSICS

SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION • SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

All questions are compulsory.
The question paper carries 70 marks and is divided into four sections:
- Section A: 16 MCQs × 1 mark = 16 marks
- Section B: 6 questions × 2 marks = 12 marks
- Section C: 9 questions × 3 marks = 27 marks, including one case-study-based question
- Section D: 3 questions × 5 marks = 15 marks
Attempt only one option where an internal choice is given.
Use appropriate SI units and show necessary steps in numerical questions.

Useful Constants (where required):
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s | m_e = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg | e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C | μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹ | ε₀ = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² C² N⁻¹ m⁻²

SECTION A — MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 × 1 = 16 MARKS)

Q1. Answer the following multiple-choice questions:

(i) The electric field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire is:

(A) inversely proportional to r
(B) inversely proportional to r²
(C) inversely proportional to r³
(D) independent of r

(ii) Which one of the following charges is NOT possible?

(A) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(B) 3.204 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(C) 5.607 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(D) 6.408 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

(iii) The direction of electric field vector at a point on the equatorial line of a dipole is:

(A) in the same direction of dipole moment
(B) in the opposite direction to the dipole moment
(C) towards the negative charge
(D) towards the positive charge

(iv) Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is joule per coulomb:

(A) Power
(B) Electric field
(C) Electric potential
(D) Dipole moment

(v) For linear dielectrics, the ratio of dielectric polarisation P to the applied electric field E is equal to:

(A) Mobility
(B) Dipole moment
(C) ε₀ × Susceptibility
(D) Permittivity

(vi) In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free electrons in a conductor at absolute temperature T is:

(A) Zero
(B) Independent of T
(C) Proportional to T
(D) Proportional to T²

(vii) Kirchhoff's first law (∑ I = 0 at a junction) deals with the conservation of:

(A) Energy
(B) Momentum
(C) Charge
(D) Angular momentum

(viii) Resistance of an ideal ammeter is:

(A) Infinity
(B) 100 Ω
(C) Zero
(D) 1 Ω

(ix) When a magnetic compass needle is carried near a straight wire carrying current:
(I) The straight wire causes a noticeable deflection in the compass needle.
(II) The alignment of the needle is tangential to an imaginary circle centered on the wire in a plane perpendicular to the wire.

(A) Only (I) is correct
(B) Only (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct

(x) If the magnetic susceptibility of a material is 100, its relative permeability is:

(A) 100
(B) 99
(C) 101
(D) 10

(xi)
Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Reason (R): If magnetic field lines intersect, the magnetic field would not have a unique direction at the point of intersection.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

(xii) In electromagnetic induction, the induced emf in a coil is independent of:

(A) change in the magnetic flux
(B) time of change of magnetic flux
(C) resistance of the circuit
(D) number of turns in the coil

(xiii) In a purely capacitive circuit, if the frequency of AC is doubled, the capacitive reactance will:

(A) get doubled
(B) become four times
(C) get halved
(D) remain constant

(xiv) At resonance, a series LCR AC circuit behaves like a:

(A) purely capacitive circuit
(B) purely resistive circuit
(C) purely inductive circuit
(D) LC circuit

(xv) Displacement current is produced due to:

(A) Constant electric field
(B) Constant magnetic field
(C) Changing electric field
(D) Changing magnetic field

(xvi)
Assertion (A): Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
Reason (R): The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation.

SECTION B — SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (6 × 2 = 12 MARKS)

Q2. Write Coulomb’s law in vector form and explain the terms involved. [2 Marks]

State and explain Gauss's law in electrostatics. [2 Marks]

Q3. Define current density in a conductor. Mention its SI unit. [2 Marks]

Q4. The electrostatic potential at a point is 10 V. Find the work required to move a charge of 20 μC from infinity to that point. [2 Marks]

Q5. What is Lorentz force? Write the vector expression representing this force. [2 Marks]

Q6. The current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, calculate the self-inductance of the circuit. [2 Marks]

In an inductive AC circuit, the value of inductance is 0.2 H and the frequency of AC is 50 Hz. Calculate the inductive reactance. [2 Marks]

Q7. Write Ampere-Maxwell’s equation and explain the physical terms. [2 Marks]

SECTION C — SHORT ANSWER / CASE STUDY QUESTIONS (9 × 3 = 27 MARKS)

Q8. State the principle of superposition of electrostatic forces. Three equal positive charges are placed at three corners A, B, and C of a square ABCD. Sketch a diagram to show the resultant force on the charge at B. [3 Marks]

Describe an experiment to demonstrate that there are two distinct types of electric charges using glass and plastic rods. [3 Marks]

Q9. Distinguish between polar and non-polar dielectrics. Give one example for each. [3 Marks]

Q10. Two point charges q_A = 3 μC and q_B = −3 μC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum. Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges. [3 Marks]

Q11. Derive an expression for the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time. [3 Marks]

Q12. State and explain Gauss's law in magnetism. What important property of magnetic monopoles does it signify? [3 Marks]

Q13. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram how a galvanometer is converted into an ammeter of a given range. [3 Marks]

Explain with the help of a circuit diagram how a galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter of a given range. [3 Marks]

Q14. CASE STUDY-BASED QUESTION

A modern hospital relies on an uninterrupted AC power supply for operation theatres, intensive care units, and diagnostic equipment. During a power outage, an inverter converts DC from batteries into alternating current to ensure that critical equipment continues to function. The inverter generates an alternating voltage with a peak value of 325 V and a frequency of 50 Hz. Engineers monitor the RMS voltage, current, and power factor to ensure efficient power transmission and minimize energy losses. The maintenance team also studies the behaviour of resistive, inductive, and capacitive loads connected to the AC supply before selecting suitable transformers and protection devices.

(a) Why is RMS value used instead of peak value while specifying domestic AC supply? [1 mark]
(b) Calculate the RMS voltage if the peak voltage is 325 V. [1 mark]
(c) State any two advantages of AC over DC for long-distance power transmission. [1 mark]

Q15. What is resonance in a series LCR circuit? Obtain the expression for its resonant frequency. [3 Marks]

Mention any three major sources of energy loss in a transformer and how they are minimized. [3 Marks]

Q16. A current loop of area 20 × 10⁻⁴ m² carrying a current of 0.2 A is placed with its plane at an angle of 60° with a uniform magnetic field of strength 4 × 10⁻² T. Calculate the torque exerted on the loop. [3 Marks]

SECTION D — LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 × 5 = 15 MARKS)

Q17.

(a) Using Gauss's law, derive the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire of linear charge density λ.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of electric field E with distance r from the wire.

(a) Define capacitance of a capacitor.
(b) Derive the expression for the effective capacitance of two capacitors connected in series.
(c) Write two factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends.

[5 Marks]

Q18.

(a) Derive the expression for the force per unit length between two long, straight, parallel current-carrying conductors.
(b) Hence, define the standard SI unit of current ('ampere').

(a) With the help of a neat labelled diagram, explain the construction, principle, and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(b) State the role of (i) radial magnetic field and (ii) soft iron core in a moving coil galvanometer.

[5 Marks]

Q19.

(a) An AC voltage v = v₀ sin(ωt) is applied across a pure inductor of inductance L. Derive the expression for the instantaneous current and show that current lags voltage by π/2 radians.
(b) Draw the phasor diagram and voltage-current waveforms for this circuit.

(a) Derive the expression for the impedance of a series LCR circuit connected to an AC source using a phasor diagram.
(b) Obtain the condition under which electrical resonance occurs and state the power factor at resonance.

[5 Marks]

Punjab board class 12 Chemistry sample Paper september 2026 -Set 3

CLASS-XII: CHEMISTRY (THEORY) — SET 3

Term-1 / September Examination (2026–27)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

1. There are 21 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 1 question (Q1) with 18 sub-parts carrying 1 mark each. Sub-parts (i) to (xvi) are Multiple Choice Questions, and (xvii) to (xviii) are Assertion-Reasoning questions.

3. SECTION B consists of 12 Very Short Answer questions (Q2 to Q13) carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in three questions.

4. SECTION C consists of 6 Short Answer & Case Study questions (Q14 to Q19) carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in two questions. Q19 is a Case Study question.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 Long Answer questions (Q20 and Q21) carrying 5 marks each. Internal choice is provided in both questions.

6. Use of log tables and unprogrammable calculators is allowed.

Blue Print & Weightage Summary

Chapter Name	Section A (1M)	Section B (2M)	Section C (3M)	Section D (5M)	Total Marks
1. Solutions	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
2. Electrochemistry	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	—	1 (5M)	12 Marks
3. Chemical Kinetics	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
4. d- and f-Block Elements	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	1 (5M)	15 Marks
5. Coordination Compounds	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	2 (6M)	—	13 Marks
6. Biomolecules	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
Total Marks	18 Marks	24 Marks	18 Marks	10 Marks	70 Marks

SECTION A (18 Marks)

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Q1. Select and write the most appropriate option for the following sub-parts:

(i) In the laboratory, a student observes that water boils at a higher temperature after adding a non-volatile solute. This observation is explained by:

(a) Raoult's law (b) Henry's law (c) Charles's law (d) Graham's law

(ii) Which of the following is a colligative property?

(a) Surface tension (b) Viscosity (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Refractive index

(iii) If 1 mole of NaCl is dissolved in water, the observed colligative property is nearly double than expected. The reason is:

(a) Association of solute (b) Dissociation of solute (c) Non-ideal solution (d) Henry's law deviation

(iv) In electrolysis, Faraday's first law states that:

(a) Mass of substance deposited is proportional to current and time (b) Mass depends on voltage only (c) Mass depends on temperature only (d) None of these

(v) A student wants to electroplate a copper spoon with silver. Which setup is correct?

(a) Spoon as anode, silver as cathode (b) Spoon as cathode, silver as anode (c) Both spoon and silver as cathode (d) Spoon as anode, silver nitrate not required

(vi) A student removes the salt bridge from a Daniell cell while the cell is operating. What happens immediately?

(a) Cell voltage increases (b) Electron flow continues normally (c) Current soon stops because charge builds up (d) Zinc dissolves faster

(vii) For a reaction A + 2B → C, the rate law is given by Rate = k[A][B]². What is the overall order of the reaction?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

(viii) The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface at high pressure is a:

(a) Zero-order reaction (b) First-order reaction (c) Second-order reaction (d) Third-order reaction

(ix) For the reaction 2N₂O₅(g) → 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g), if the rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹, what is the rate of formation of NO₂?

(a) 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (b) 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (c) 4.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (d) 8.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

(x) Chromium is used in stainless steel manufacturing. Which property makes it suitable?

(a) Formation of volatile oxides (b) High corrosion resistance due to Cr₂O₃ layer (c) Colourful compounds (d) High density

(xi) Which of the following elements is used in nuclear reactors among actinoids?

(a) Thorium (b) Uranium (c) Plutonium (d) All of these

(xii) Which transition element is commonly used in artificial satellites for corrosion resistance?

(a) Ti (b) Cu (c) V (d) Mn

(xiii) The coordination number of the central metal atom in [PtCl₄]²⁻ is:

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

(xiv) Which type of ligand is ethylenediamine (en)?

(a) Monodentate (b) Bidentate (c) Tridentate (d) Polydentate

(xv) Which of the following complexes is tetrahedral?

(a) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ (b) [NiCl₄]²⁻ (c) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (d) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻

(xvi) Vitamin 'C' is the chemical compound called:

(a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Rabinose (d) Thiamine

Directions for sub-parts (xvii) and (xviii):

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(xvii)

Assertion (A): In a galvanic cell, oxidation takes place at the anode.

Reason (R): The anode releases electrons during the oxidation process.

(xviii)

Assertion (A): Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Reason (R): In sucrose, the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formation.

SECTION B (24 Marks)

Q2. If a solution shows an elevation in boiling point of 0.52 K, calculate the molar mass of the solute. The ebullioscopic constant (K_b) for water is 0.52 K kg mol⁻¹ and the mass of solute used is 2 g in 100 g of water. (2 Marks)

Q3. Explain the term "molality" and describe how it differs from molarity. Why is molality preferred over molarity for measuring concentrations at varying temperatures? (2 Marks)

Q4. The standard emf of a galvanic cell is 0.0591 V at 298 K with n = 1. Calculate the equilibrium constant (K_c) for the cell reaction. (2 Marks)

Q5. A conductivity cell containing 0.01 M KCl solution has a resistance of 50 Ω. If the cell constant is 0.4 cm⁻¹, calculate: (2 Marks)

(a) Conductivity (κ)

(b) Molar conductivity (Λ_m)

A car battery discharges during normal use. (2 Marks)

(a) Name the electrolyte used in a lead-acid battery.

(b) What happens to the concentration and density of H₂SO₄ during discharge?

Q6. Distinguish between the Order and Molecularity of a chemical reaction with two points of difference. (2 Marks)

Q7. Calculate the half-life of a first-order reaction having rate constant k = 4.93 × 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹. (2 Marks)

Q8. Zirconium (Zr) and Hafnium (Hf) exhibit almost identical chemical properties and ionic radii. Justify this observation. (2 Marks)

Q9. Why do transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states in their compounds? (2 Marks)

Why do zinc (Zn), cadmium (Cd), and mercury (Hg) have comparatively low melting and boiling points? (2 Marks)

Q10. Differentiate between double salts and coordination compounds with a suitable example of each. (2 Marks)

Q11. Explain the chelate effect. Why are chelating complexes generally more stable than non-chelated complexes? (2 Marks)

Q12. What is mutarotation? Explain with reference to α- and β-anomers of D-glucose. (2 Marks)

Q13. State two important structural or chemical differences between DNA and RNA. (2 Marks)

Differentiate between reducing sugars and non-reducing sugars with one example of each. (2 Marks)

SECTION C (18 Marks)

Q14. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point increased to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute (K_b for benzene = 2.53 K kg mol⁻¹). (3 Marks)

Q15. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 60 s⁻¹. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to 1/10^th of its initial value? (3 Marks)

A first-order reaction takes 23.1 min for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction. (3 Marks)

Q16. Give scientific reasons for the following observations: (3 Marks)

(a) Transition metals and their compounds show paramagnetism.

(b) Transition metals easily form interstitial alloys.

Q17. (3 Marks)

(a) What are ambidentate ligands? Give two examples.

(b) Write the formula of two coordination complexes showing linkage isomerism.

Explain the difference between high-spin (outer orbital) and low-spin (inner orbital) octahedral complexes with one example of each. (3 Marks)

Q18. Differentiate between ionisation isomerism and hydrate (solvate) isomerism. Give one example formula for each type. (3 Marks)

Q19. CASE STUDY QUESTION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

A radioactive isotope used in medical oncology undergoes first-order nuclear decay. Unlike zero-order processes where the reaction rate is independent of substrate concentration, the rate of a first-order process is directly proportional to the reactant concentration at any given instant. Furthermore, the half-life period (t_1/2) of a first-order reaction is completely independent of the initial concentration ([R]₀) of the substance. Medicines and radio-pharmaceuticals frequently display shelf-life stability governed by Arrhenius temperature kinetics.

(a) On which kinetic parameters does the half-life of a first-order reaction depend? (1 Mark)

(b) If the half-life of a medical radioisotope sample is 4 hours, what fraction of the radioactive substance remains undecayed after 8 hours? (1 Mark)

(c) Why are certain medicinal drugs recommended to be stored at low temperatures in refrigerators? (1 Mark)

SECTION D (10 Marks)

Q20.

(a) For the cell:

Ni(s) | Ni²⁺(0.01 M) || Cu²⁺(0.01 M) | Cu(s)

Calculate the cell EMF (E_cell) at 298 K and formulate the Nernst equation for the cell reaction.

[Given: E°(Ni²⁺/Ni) = −0.22 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V] (3 Marks)

(b) The resistance of a 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte placed between two platinum electrodes 1.5 cm apart and having cross-sectional area of 2.0 cm² was found to be 30 Ω. Calculate the molar conductivity (Λ_m) of the solution. (2 Marks)

(a) Calculate the maximum electrical work (W_max = −ΔG°) that can be obtained from the standard Daniell cell:

Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Cu²⁺(aq) | Cu(s)

[Given: E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (3 Marks)

(b) Answer the following: (2 Marks)

(i) Write the cathode and anode reactions occurring during the electrolysis of aqueous CuSO₄ using copper electrodes.

(ii) State one major advantage and one limitation of fuel cells compared to conventional batteries.

Q21.

(a) Explain the following: (3 Marks)

(i) Catalytic behaviour of transition metals based on variable oxidation states and surface adsorption.

(ii) Why actinoids exhibit a wider range of oxidation states compared to lanthanoids.

(iii) Why Cr²⁺ acts as a strong reducing agent whereas Mn³⁺ acts as a strong oxidising agent.

(b) (2 Marks)

(i) What is the general electronic configuration of d-block transition elements?

(ii) Explain why Cu⁺ is unstable in aqueous solution and undergoes disproportionation.

(a) Account for the following: (3 Marks)

(i) Enthalpy of atomization of transition metals is quite high.

(ii) Transition metal ions generally form coloured complexes in aqueous solution.

(iii) Basic strength of lanthanoid hydroxides Ln(OH)₃ decreases progressively from La(OH)₃ to Lu(OH)₃.

(b) Write balanced chemical structures/equations for the preparation of potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) from chromite ore or explain the interconversion of chromate and dichromate ions with change in pH. (2 Marks)

PSEB CLASS 12 CHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER 2026 SET 2 ( SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION)

PSEB Class 12 Chemistry September Sample Paper 2026 Set 1– 12th Chemistry Question Paper

CLASS-XII: CHEMISTRY (THEORY)

Term-1 / September Examination (2026–27)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

1. There are 21 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

3. SECTION B consists of 12 Very Short Answer questions (Q2 to Q13) carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in three questions.

4. SECTION C consists of 6 Short Answer & Case Study questions (Q14 to Q19) carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in two questions. Q19 is a Case Study question.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 Long Answer questions (Q20 and Q21) carrying 5 marks each. Internal choice is provided in both questions.

6. Use of log tables and unprogrammable calculators is allowed.

Blue Print & Weightage Summary

Chapter Name	Section A (1M)	Section B (2M)	Section C (3M)	Section D (5M)	Total Marks
1. Solutions	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
2. Electrochemistry	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	—	1 (5M)	12 Marks
3. Chemical Kinetics	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
4. d- and f-Block Elements	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	1 (5M)	15 Marks
5. Coordination Compounds	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	2 (6M)	—	13 Marks
6. Biomolecules	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
Total Marks	18 Marks	24 Marks	18 Marks	10 Marks	70 Marks

SECTION A (18 Marks)

Q1. Select and write the most appropriate option for the following sub-parts:

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(i) While doing an experiment, a student adds glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) to water and measures the change in vapor pressure. Which colligative property is being studied?

(a) Osmosis (b) Elevation of boiling point (c) Relative lowering of vapor pressure (d) Depression in freezing point

(ii) According to Raoult's law, the vapour pressure of a solvent is directly proportional to its:

(a) Molarity (b) Mole fraction (c) Molality (d) Density

(iii) A student measures the osmotic pressure of different solutions at the same temperature. He finds that osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration. This relation is analogous to:

(a) Boyle's law (b) Avogadro's law (c) Ideal gas law (d) Charles's law

(iv) The standard electrode potential of a half-cell depends on:

(a) Concentration, pressure, and temperature (b) Only the temperature (c) Only concentration of ions (d) Nature of electrodes only

(v) An iron bridge near the sea is protected by attaching blocks of zinc to it. This method works because:

(a) Zinc forms a waterproof coating on iron (b) Zinc is more reactive than iron and oxidizes first (c) Zinc prevents oxygen from reaching iron (d) Zinc reacts with water to neutralize acids

(vi) What are the units of the rate constant (k) for a zero-order reaction?

(a) s⁻¹ (b) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ (c) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ (d) L² mol⁻² s⁻¹

(vii) The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with an increase in temperature because of:

(a) Decrease in activation energy (b) Increase in the number of effective collisions (c) Decrease in collision frequency (d) Increase in the threshold energy

(viii) In a reaction, if the concentration of a reactant drops from 1.0 M to 0.5 M in 20 minutes, and from 0.5 M to 0.25 M in the next 20 minutes, the order of the reaction is:

(a) Zero (b) First (c) Second (d) Third

(ix) Which of the following is a property of lanthanoids?

(a) Constant ionic radius across the series (b) Gradual decrease in ionic size with increasing atomic number (c) No variable oxidation states (d) Colourless compounds only

(x) A student compared magnetic properties of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions. Fe²⁺ shows 4 unpaired electrons while Fe³⁺ shows 5 unpaired electrons. Which statement is correct?

(a) Fe²⁺ is more paramagnetic (b) Fe³⁺ is more paramagnetic (c) Both are diamagnetic (d) Both show equal magnetic moment

(xi) Which transition metal compound acts as a catalyst in the Contact Process because of its ability to undergo changes in oxidation state?

(a) MnO₂ (b) V₂O₅ (c) CuO (d) ZnO

(xii) The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is:

(a) Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (b) Hexaamminecobalt(II) chloride (c) Hexaammoniacobalt trichloride (d) Cobalthexammine chloride

(xiii) Which of the following complexes shows linkage isomerism?

(a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (b) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]²⁺ (c) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ (d) [NiCl₄]²⁻

(xiv) The hybridization of the central metal atom in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:

(a) sp³ (b) dsp² (c) sp² (d) sp³d²

(xv) Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

(a) Uracil (b) Cytosine (c) Guanine (d) Thymine

(xvi) The helical structure of a protein is stabilized by:

(a) Peptide bond (b) Hydrogen bond (c) van der Waals forces (d) Dipole association

Directions for sub-parts (xvii) and (xviii):

In each question, an Assertion (A) is followed by a Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

(xvii)

Assertion (A): The emf of a Daniell cell increases when the concentration of Cu²⁺ ions is increased.

Reason (R): According to the Nernst equation, cell emf depends on the concentration of ions in solution.

(xviii)

Assertion (A): Glucose is a reducing sugar.

Reason (R): Glucose contains a free aldehydic group in its open-chain structure.

SECTION B (24 Marks)

Q2. A solution contains 5% by mass of urea (CH₄N₂O) in water. Calculate the molarity of the solution, given that the density of the solution is 1.10 g/mL. (2 Marks)

Q3. Given the vapor pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg, and a solution has a vapor pressure of 22.8 mm Hg, calculate the mole fraction of solute in the solution. (2 Marks)

Q4. What amount of electricity (in Coulombs or Faradays) can deposit 1 mole of calcium metal at the cathode when passed through molten CaCl₂? (2 Marks)

Q5. The resistance of 0.5 N solution of an electrolyte in a conductivity cell was found to be 25 Ω. Calculate the equivalent conductivity of the solution if the electrodes in the cell are 1.6 cm apart and have an area of 3.2 cm². (2 Marks)

The molar conductances at infinite dilution for sodium acetate (CH₃COONa), hydrochloric acid (HCl), and sodium chloride (NaCl) are 95.5, 426.9, and 120.4 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively at 298 K. Calculate the molar conductance of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) at infinite dilution. (2 Marks)

Q6. Define a pseudo first-order reaction and illustrate it with a balanced chemical equation. (2 Marks)

Q7. Calculate the half-life of a first-order reaction having rate constant k = 200 s⁻¹. (2 Marks)

Q8. Explain why zinc (Zn) and cadmium (Cd) are normally not considered transition metals. (2 Marks)

Q9. Zn²⁺ ion is colourless whereas Cu²⁺ ion is coloured in aqueous solutions. Explain with reason. (2 Marks)

Why are Fe³⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ compounds towards oxidation? (2 Marks)

Q10. Define a ligand. Give two examples of bidentate ligands. (2 Marks)

Q11. Write the hybridization and geometry/shape of [Ni(CO)₄]. (2 Marks)

Q12. What is a peptide linkage/bond? Illustrate with an example. (2 Marks)

Q13. Differentiate between essential and non-essential amino acids. (2 Marks)

Why cannot Vitamin C be stored in the human body? (2 Marks)

SECTION C (18 Marks)

Q14. Addition of 0.643 g of a non-volatile compound to 50 mL of benzene (density = 0.879 g/mL) lowers the freezing point from 5.51 °C to 5.03 °C. If K_f for benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, calculate the molecular mass of the compound. (3 Marks)

Q15. A first-order reaction is 20% complete in 10 minutes. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction. (3 Marks)

The rate constant of a first-order reaction increases from 2.5 × 10⁻² s⁻¹ to 5.0 × 10⁻² s⁻¹ when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. Calculate the activation energy (E_a) of the reaction (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹). (3 Marks)

Q16. What is meant by 'lanthanoid contraction'? State its primary cause and describe two major consequences on the chemistry of post-lanthanoid elements. (3 Marks)

Q17. Write the systematic IUPAC names of the following coordination entities: (3 Marks)

(i) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺

(ii) [Cr(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl

(iii) K₂[PdCl₄]

Using Valence Bond Theory (VBT), explain why [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic while [NiCl₄]²⁻ is paramagnetic. (3 Marks)

Q18. Draw the crystal field splitting diagram of d-orbitals in an octahedral coordination field (Δ_o). Explain how the magnitude of crystal field splitting determines the formation of low-spin vs high-spin complexes. (3 Marks)

Q19. CASE STUDY QUESTION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Proteins are high molecular mass biopolymers of α-amino acids joined together by peptide bonds. They play a fundamental role in physiological structure and metabolic regulation. In native proteins, the secondary and tertiary structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonding, disulfide linkages, and van der Waals interactions. When a native protein is subjected to physical changes such as temperature or chemical changes like alteration of pH, these non-covalent interactions are disrupted. As a result, globules unfold and helices get uncoiled, leading to loss of biological function without cleaving the covalent peptide backbone.

(a) Name the type of chemical linkage formed between −COOH and −NH₂ groups of adjacent amino acids in a protein chain. (1 Mark)

(b) Differentiate between fibrous proteins and globular proteins on the basis of shape and solubility. (1 Mark)

(c) What happens to the primary structure of a protein during denaturation? Give one common daily-life example of protein denaturation. (1 Mark)

SECTION D (10 Marks)

Q20.

(a) For the galvanic cell:

Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(0.0004 M) || Cd²⁺(0.2 M) | Cd(s)

Calculate the cell EMF (E_cell) at 298 K and find the standard Gibbs free energy change (ΔG°) for the reaction.

[Given: E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cd²⁺/Cd) = −0.40 V, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (3 Marks)

(b) State Faraday's first law of electrolysis. A steady current of 4 A is passed through an aqueous solution of CuSO₄ for 2 hours. Calculate the mass of copper deposited at the cathode.

[Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol⁻¹, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (2 Marks)

(a) Represent the electrochemical cell and calculate its EMF (E_cell) at 298 K for the reaction:

Mg(s) + Cu²⁺(0.0001 M) → Mg²⁺(0.001 M) + Cu(s)

[Given: E°(Mg²⁺/Mg) = −2.37 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V] (3 Marks)

(b) Give reasons for the following:

(i) Write the chemical reactions occurring at the cathode and anode of a Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cell.

(ii) Zinc blocks attached to the hull of steel ships protect iron from corrosion even if scratched. (2 Marks)

Q21.

(a) Account for the following:

(i) Transition metals show variable oxidation states.

(ii) Zn, Cd, and Hg are soft metals with comparatively low melting and boiling points.

(iii) E° value for the Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is highly positive (+1.57 V) compared to Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺. (3 Marks)

(b) Write one point of similarity and one point of difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and actinoids. (2 Marks)

(a) Explain the following observations:

(i) Transition metals and their compounds are effective industrial catalysts.

(ii) Zirconium (Zr, Z=40) and Hafnium (Hf, Z=72) have almost identical atomic and ionic radii.

(iii) KMnO₄ exhibits an intense purple colour despite the absence of unpaired d-electrons on Mn⁷⁺. (3 Marks)

(b) Write the chemical formulae of:

(i) Manganate ion

(ii) Dichromate ion

What is Misch metal? State one of its major uses. (2 Marks)

Punjab School Education Board Class XII –Biology September Examination 2026-27

Punjab School Education Board

Class XII – September Examination 2026-27

Subject: Biology (Theory)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

There shall be one theory paper comprising 20 questions. All questions are compulsory.
Section A: Question No. 1 consists of 18 sub-parts carrying 1 mark each (16 MCQs and 2 Assertion-Reason questions).
Section B: Question Nos. 2 to 11 are Very Short Answer Type carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 4 questions.
Section C: Question Nos. 12 to 17 are Short Answer Type carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions.
Section D: Question Nos. 18 to 20 are Long Answer Type carrying 5 marks each. All questions have internal choice.
Use of calculators or log tables is not permitted. Draw neat and properly labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

SECTION – A (18 Marks)

Q.1 Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four given choices for each sub-part (i to xvi). Questions (xvii) and (xviii) are Assertion-Reasoning based. (18 × 1 = 18 Marks)

(i) Which one of the following is a post-fertilization event in angiosperms?

(A) Megasporogenesis

(B) Gametogenesis

(D) Pollination

(ii) The major evolutionary advantage of cleistogamous flowers to a plant is:

(A) Higher rate of cross-pollination

(B) Greater genetic recombination

(D) Production of larger seeds

(iii) In the human female reproductive tract, fertilization normally occurs in the:

(A) Uterus

(B) Cervix

(D) Isthmus of the fallopian tube

(iv) Which outer cellular layer of the blastocyst directly participates in the formation of the placenta?

(A) Epiblast

(B) Hypoblast

(D) Inner cell mass

(v) 'Saheli', a widely used oral contraceptive pill developed in India, contains:

(A) High levels of progesterone

(B) Centchroman (non-steroidal)

(D) Levonorgestrel

(vi) A child is born with blood group O. If the mother has blood group A and the father has blood group AB, which conclusion is genetically valid?

(A) The child inherited the recessive allele directly from the father

(B) The child cannot be the biological offspring of this father as blood group AB lacks the i allele

(D) The mother has the homozygous genotype I^AI^A

(vii) The physical association of two or more genes located on the same chromosome is termed:

(A) Recombination

(B) Linkage

(D) Independent assortment

(viii) A genetic condition in which a single gene controls and influences multiple phenotypic traits is known as:

(A) Epistasis

(B) Pleiotropy

(D) Incomplete dominance

(ix) If one strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule contains the sequence 3'-ATTCGTAC-5', the complementary sequence synthesized on the other strand will be:

(A) 5'-UAAGCAUG-3'

(B) 3'-TAAGCATG-5'

(D) 5'-AUUCGUAC-3'

(x) Hershey and Chase used radioactive isotopes of which pair of elements to verify that DNA is the genetic material?

(A) Carbon (¹⁴C) and Sulphur (³⁵S)

(B) Nitrogen (¹⁵N) and Oxygen (¹⁸O)

(D) Phosphorus (³²P) and Carbon (¹⁴C)

(xi) The first hominid with a cranial capacity between 650–800 cc and tool-making ability was:

(A) Ramapithecus

(B) Homo habilis

(D) Homo erectus

(xii) Genetic drift produces significant changes in allele frequencies primarily in:

(A) Very large populations

(B) Small, isolated populations

(D) Random mating populations of infinite size

(xiii) Which diagnostic test is widely used in laboratories to confirm typhoid fever?

(A) ELISA test

(B) Widal test

(D) Mantoux test

(xiv) Morphine and related opiate narcotics are extracted from the latex of which plant?

(A) Cannabis sativa

(B) Erythroxylum coca

(D) Datura stramonium

(xv) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) serves as an index of water quality because it measures:

(A) The total concentration of dissolved heavy metal salts

(B) The rate of oxygen consumption by aerobic microbes decomposing organic matter

(D) The total volume of settleable suspended solids

(xvi) Which of the following is a free-living, soil-dwelling bacterium that fixes atmospheric nitrogen?

(A) Rhizobium

(B) Azotobacter

(D) Trichoderma

Directions for Q.17 & Q.18: In each question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(xvii) Assertion (A): The two complementary chains of a double-stranded DNA helix run antiparallel to each other.
Reason (R): One strand runs in the 5' → 3' direction with a free 5'-phosphate group, while the opposing strand runs in the 3' → 5' direction with an accessible 3'-hydroxyl group.

(xviii) Assertion (A): The primitive atmosphere of early Earth was completely reducing in nature without molecular oxygen.
Reason (R): Intense ultraviolet radiation instantly converted all free oxygen into an ozone shield during that era.

SECTION – B (20 Marks)

Answer the following Very Short Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 2 to 11 carry 2 Marks each). (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

Q.2 Compare geitonogamy and xenogamy based on their pollination mechanism and the genetic nature of the progeny produced. [2]

Q.3 Why is the human placenta described as a temporary endocrine tissue? Name any two hormones secreted exclusively or predominantly by it during pregnancy. [2]

Q.4 [Diagram-Based Question] The diagram given below represents sperm entry into an ovum during human fertilization.

[Figure: Sperm interaction with ovum layers]

(a) Identify the outer protective layer designated as (A) through which the sperm penetrates.
(b) State the role of acrosomal enzymes present at the tip of structure (B). [2]

A female has a regular menstrual cycle of 32 days. Calculate and predict her most likely day of ovulation, and justify your answer based on the fixed lifespan of the corpus luteum (luteal phase). [2]

Q.5 Explain the physiological mechanism by which Copper-T (Cu-T) prevents pregnancy when placed inside the human uterus.

Get pdf of this question paper @Rs 50, WhatsApp 9464496353

[2]

Q.6 A student wants to know whether a tall pea plant with violet flowers in the garden is homozygous or heterozygous dominant. Name the test cross method and represent it with a Punnett square. [2]

An individual is diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome having a chromosomal constitution of 44 + XXY. Mention any two distinct clinical symptoms observed in such an individual. [2]

Q.7 A sample of double-stranded DNA contains 2,000 nitrogenous bases in total, out of which 520 are adenine residues. Calculate the number of purines, pyrimidines, and guanine residues in this DNA sample. [2]

Q.8 Why are the wings of a butterfly and the wings of a pigeon called analogous organs? Name the evolutionary pattern responsible for this phenomenon. [2]

Q.9 In a human population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a dominant allele (A) is 0.6. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (a) and the proportion of heterozygous individuals (Aa). [2]

What was the evolutionary significance of catching a live Coelacanth (lobe-finned fish) off the coast of South Africa in 1938? [2]

Q.10 Differentiate between benign tumours and malignant tumours based on their capsule formation and property of metastasis. [2]

Q.11 What are 'flocs' in a secondary sewage treatment plant? Explain their role in bringing down the BOD of effluent. [2]

Name the bacterium responsible for the large holes found in 'Swiss cheese' and explain how these holes are formed. [2]

SECTION – C (18 Marks)

Answer the following Short Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 12 to 17 carry 3 Marks each). (6 × 3 = 18 Marks)

Q.12 Explain the two fusion events that constitute 'double fertilization' in angiosperms. Why is this event unique to flowering plants? [3]

Q.13 [Illustration-Based Question] The diagrammatic flow chart below shows the sequential maturation of ovarian follicles during the human ovarian cycle:

Primary Follicle → Secondary Follicle → Tertiary Follicle (with Antrum) → Graafian Follicle

↓ (Ovulation)
Corpus Luteum

(a) What is the fluid-filled cavity characteristic of the tertiary follicle called?
(b) Which anterior pituitary hormone surge triggers the rupture of the Graafian follicle?
(c) What is the endocrine function of the corpus luteum in maintaining the endometrium? [3]

Q.14 In a dihybrid cross involving Drosophila melanogaster, T.H. Morgan crossed yellow-bodied, white-eyed females with brown-bodied, red-eyed males. The F₂ progeny showed 98.7% parental types and only 1.3% recombinant types.
(a) Explain why the phenotypic ratio deviated significantly from the expected Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio.
(b) Define the genetic mechanism responsible for this deviation. [3]

Q.15 In an experiment on E. coli, the mechanism of the lac operon was investigated:
(a) Identify the physiological inducer molecule in the lac operon.
(b) Explain what happens when the inducer binds to the repressor protein.
(c) List the three structural genes (z, y, a) and the specific enzymes they code for. [3]

Describe Frederick Griffith's transformation experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae in mice. What conclusion was derived regarding the nature of the transforming principle? [3]

Q.16 Explain how natural selection operated on the peppered moth (Biston betularia) population in England before and after industrialization. What is this phenomenon termed? [3]

Q.17 Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity based on the origin of antibodies and longevity of protection. Give one practical medical example for each. [3]

A patient exhibits high sustained fever (39°C–40°C), severe stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite.
(a) Identify the bacterial pathogen causing this disease.
(b) Name the diagnostic test used to confirm this infection.
(c) How is this disease transmitted in human communities? [3]

SECTION – D (15 Marks)

Answer the following Long Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 18 to 20 carry 5 Marks each). (3 × 5 = 15 Marks)

Q.18 [Draw, Label and Explain Type Question]
(a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the human female reproductive system.
(b) Explain the functions of the following structures: (i) Fimbriae, (ii) Endometrium, (iii) Myometrium.
(c) Describe the structure of a mature Graafian follicle. [2+2+1 = 5]

[Space for Diagram: Female Reproductive System]

(a) Draw a schematic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule in a human testis and label any four parts.
(b) Explain the hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis in human males starting from the hypothalamus.
(c) State one difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation. [2+2+1 = 5]

[Space for Diagram: Sectional view of Seminiferous Tubule]

Q.19
(a) Describe the Hershey-Chase blender experiment that proved that DNA is the genetic material.
(b) Why were ³²P and ³⁵S chosen for labelling nucleic acids and proteins respectively?
(c) What results were observed in the supernatant and bacterial pellet in both batches? [2+2+1 = 5]

(a) Explain the semi-conservative replication of DNA with the help of a labelled replication fork diagram.
(b) State the specific functions of: (i) DNA Helicase, (ii) DNA Polymerase III, (iii) DNA Ligase.
(c) Why is DNA replication continuous on one template strand and discontinuous on the other? [2+2+1 = 5]

[Space for Diagram: DNA Replication Fork]

Q.20 [Case Study / Application-Based Question]
A 35-year-old patient reports to a clinic with continuous fever, chronic diarrhoea, rapid weight loss, and recurrent opportunistic infections. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) confirms that the patient is infected with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

Retrovirus (HIV) entry into Macrophage/T_H cell → Reverse transcription produces viral DNA → Incorporation into host genome → Production of new viral progeny → Progressive depletion of Helper T-lymphocytes.

(a) Explain why HIV is classified as a "retrovirus" and name the key viral enzyme involved in synthesizing DNA from viral RNA.
(b) Which specific immune cells are progressively destroyed by HIV? Why does their destruction paralyze both cell-mediated and humoral immunity?
(c) Differentiate between being 'HIV-positive' and having 'full-blown AIDS'.
(d) Mention any two effective preventive strategies recommended to control HIV transmission. [1+2+1+1 = 5]

A 55-year-old chronic tobacco user is diagnosed with malignant lung cancer. Histological examination shows an abnormal mass of cells invading neighbouring tissues and blood vessels.
(a) Define contact inhibition and explain how normal cells differ from cancerous cells in this property.
(b) Explain the phenomenon of "metastasis" and why it is considered the most feared property of malignant tumours.
(c) Name three categories of carcinogens (physical, chemical, biological) with one example for each.
(d) Mention any two conventional therapies used in cancer management. [1+1.5+1.5+1 = 5]

5 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਭਗਵੰਤ ਮਾਨ ਨੂੰ ਘੇਰਨਗੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮ - ਲਾਹੌਰੀਆ

5 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਭਗਵੰਤ ਮਾਨ ਨੂੰ ਘੇਰਨਗੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮ - ਲਾਹੌਰੀਆ

ਐਲੀਮੈਂਟਰੀ ਟੀਚਰਜ਼ ਯੂਨੀਅਨ ਪੰਜਾਬ (ਰਜਿ) ਦੇ ਸੂਬਾ ਪ੍ਰੈੱਸ ਕਰ ਤੇ ਸੋਸ਼ਲ ਮੀਡੀਆ ਇੰਚਾਰਜ ਦਲਜੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਲਹੌਰੀਆ ਨੇ ਦੱਸਿਆ ਕਿ ਸਾਂਝਾ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮ ਮੰਚ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਡੀਏ ਤੇ ਹੋਰ ਵਿੱਤੀ ਮੰਗਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ 5 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਭਗਵੰਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਮਾਨ ਦਾ ਘਿਰਾਓ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ l ਪਿਛਲੇ ਕਾਫੀ ਸਮੇਂ ਤੋਂ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਆਪਣੇ ਡੀਏ ਤੇ ਹੋਰ ਵਿੱਤੀ ਮੰਗਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵਿਰੁੱਧ ਸੰਘਰਸ਼ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾ ਰਿਹਾ ਹੈ,ਪਰ ਇਸ ਨੂੰ ਬੂਰ ਨਹੀਂ ਪਿਆ l ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਵੱਲੋਂ 27 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮ ਮੰਚ ਨਾਲ ਵਿੱਤੀ ਤੇ ਡੀਏ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਮੰਗਾਂ ਲਈ ਮੀਟਿੰਗ ਕੀਤੀ ਜਾਣੀ ਸੀ l ਇਸ ਦਿਨ ਹੀ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ ਨੇ ਸਮੂਹਿਕ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਦਾ ਐਲਾਨ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੋਇਆ ਸੀ l ਇਸ ਸਮੂਹਿਕ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਤੋਂ ਚਿੜ ਕੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਨੇ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾ ਵਿਰੁੱਧ ਬਹੁਤ ਹੀ ਭੱਦੇ ਟਵੀਟ ਕੀਤੇ ਜੋ ਕਿ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਰਾਸ ਨਹੀਂ ਆਏ l ਹੁਣ 5 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾ ਮੰਚ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਘੇਰਨ ਦਾ ਐਲਾਨ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ l

ਇਸ ਮੌਕੇ ਹਰਜਿੰਦਰ ਪਾਲ ਸਿੰਘ ਪੰਨੂ, ਨਰੇਸ਼ ਪਨਿਆੜ, ਹਰਜਿੰਦਰ ਹਾਂਡਾ, ਸਤਵੀਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਰੌਣੀ, ਹਰਕ੍ਰਿਸ਼ਨ ਮੋਹਾਲੀ , ਬੀ.ਕੇ.ਮਹਿਮੀ , ਨੀਰਜ ਅਗਰਵਾਲ , ਗੁਰਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਘੁਕੇਵਾਲੀ, ਸਰਬਜੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਖਡੂਰ ਸਾਹਿਬ, ਨਿਰਭੈ ਸਿਂਘ , ਸੋਹਣ ਸਿੰਘ , ਖੁਸ਼ਪ੍ਰੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਕੰਗ , ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਪਾਲ ਸਿੰਘ ਸੇਖੋਂ , ਰਵੀ ਵਾਹੀ , ਜਤਿੰਦਰਪਾਲ ਸਿੰਘ ਰੰਧਾਵਾ , ਹਰਜਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਚੋਹਾਨ , ਦੀਦਾਰ ਸਿੰਘ , ਲਖਵਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਸੇਖੋਂ , ਸਤਬੀਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਬੋਪਾਰਾਏ , ਤਰਸੇਮ ਲਾਲ ਜਲੰਧਰ , ਰਿਸ਼ੀ ਕੁਮਾਰ ਜਲੰਧਰ , ਸੰਜੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਨਿੱਜਰ , ਮਨਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਪੰਜਗਰਾਈਆਂ ਆਦਿ ਆਗੂ ਹਾਜਰ ਸਨ ।

Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 Datesheet announced

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਕਾਡਰ ਭਰਤੀ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਦੀਆਂ ਮਿਤੀਆਂ ਦਾ ਐਲਾਨ: ਦੇਖੋ ਪੂਰਾ ਸ਼ਡਿਊਲ

ਦਫ਼ਤਰ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟਰ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਭਰਤੀ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟੋਰੇਟ, ਪੰਜਾਬ | ਪਬਲਿਕ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਮਿਤੀ: 31-08-2026

ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ, ਪੰਜਾਬ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਕਾਡਰ ਦੇ ਵੱਖ-ਵੱਖ ਵਿਸ਼ਿਆਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਬੈਕਲਾਗ ਅਤੇ ਨਵੀਆਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਭਰਨ ਲਈ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ (Written Test) ਦੀਆਂ ਮਿਤੀਆਂ ਦਾ ਐਲਾਨ ਕਰ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਟੈਸਟ 19 ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026 ਤੋਂ 27 ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026 ਦੌਰਾਨ ਲਏ ਜਾਣਗੇ।

ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਦਾ ਸਮਾਂ (Exam Timings)

ਸਵੇਰ ਦਾ ਸੈਸ਼ਨ: ਸਵੇਰੇ 09:30 ਵਜੇ ਤੋਂ ਦੁਪਹਿਰ 12:00 ਵਜੇ ਤੱਕ
ਸ਼ਾਮ ਦਾ ਸੈਸ਼ਨ: ਦੁਪਹਿਰ 03:00 ਵਜੇ ਤੋਂ ਸ਼ਾਮ 05:30 ਵਜੇ ਤੱਕ

ਵਿਸ਼ਾਵਾਰ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਡੇਟਸ਼ੀਟ (Date Sheet)

ਲੜੀ ਨੰ:	ਮਿਤੀ	ਸਵੇਰ ਦਾ ਸੈਸ਼ਨ (09:30 AM - 12:00 PM)	ਸ਼ਾਮ ਦਾ ਸੈਸ਼ਨ (03:00 PM - 05:30 PM)
1	19.09.2026 (ਸ਼ਨੀਵਾਰ)	—	ਹਿੰਦੀ, ਬਾਇਓਲੋਜੀ
2	20.09.2026 (ਐਤਵਾਰ)	ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਸ਼ਾਸਤਰ (Pol. Science)	ਹਿਸਟਰੀ (History)
3	26.09.2026 (ਸ਼ਨੀਵਾਰ)	—	ਅੰਗਰੇਜ਼ੀ (English)
4	27.09.2026 (ਐਤਵਾਰ)	ਪੰਜਾਬੀ (Punjabi)	ਮੈਥ (Mathematics)

ਮਹੱਤਵਪੂਰਨ ਨੋਟ (Important Notes):

ਲਿਖਤੀ ਟੈਸਟ ਲਈ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਸਥਾਨ (Examination Center) ਰੋਲ ਨੰਬਰ ਜਾਰੀ ਕਰਨ ਸਮੇਂ ਦਰਸਾਇਆ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ।
ਉਮੀਦਵਾਰ ਸਮੇਂ ਸਿਰ ਆਪਣੇ ਐਡਮਿਟ ਕਾਰਡ ਅਤੇ ਹੋਰ ਤਾਜ਼ਾ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਲਈ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਦੀ ਅਧਿਕਾਰਤ ਵੈੱਬਸਾਈਟ ਚੈੱਕ ਕਰਦੇ ਰਹਿਣ।

**ਪੰਜਾਬ 'ਚ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਭਰਤੀ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਦੀ ਡੇਟਸ਼ੀਟ ਰੱਦ; ਸਤੰਬਰ ਮਹੀਨੇ 'ਚ ਹੀ ਲਿਆ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਟੈਸਟ** **

ਐੱਸ.ਏ.ਐੱਸ. ਨਗਰ (ਮੋਹਾਲੀ) 31 August ( ਜਾਬਸ ਆਫ ਟੁਡੇ) :** ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਭਰਤੀ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟੋਰੇਟ, ਪੰਜਾਬ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਕਾਡਰ ਦੀਆਂ ਬੈਕਲਾਗ ਅਤੇ ਨਵੀਆਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਲਈ 10 ਅਗਸਤ 2026 ਨੂੰ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ ਦੀ ਡੇਟਸ਼ੀਟ ਵਾਪਿਸ ਲੈ ਲਈ ਗਈ ਹੈ। ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟੋਰੇਟ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਜਾਰੀ ਤਾਜ਼ਾ ਪਬਲਿਕ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ, ਨਵੀਆਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਵਾਧਾ ਕੀਤੇ ਜਾਣ ਉਪਰੰਤ ਆਨਲਾਈਨ ਅਪਲਾਈ ਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਆਖ਼ਰੀ ਮਿਤੀ ਵਧਾ ਕੇ 27 ਅਗਸਤ 2026 ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਸੀ। ਇਸ ਕਾਰਨ ਪੁਰਾਣੀ ਡੇਟਸ਼ੀਟ ਰੱਦ ਕਰਨ ਦਾ ਫ਼ੈਸਲਾ ਲਿਆ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ। ਵਿਭਾਗ ਨੇ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੈ ਕਿ ਇਨ੍ਹਾਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਲਈ ਨਵੀਂ ਡੇਟਸ਼ੀਟ ਜਲਦੀ ਹੀ ਜਾਰੀ ਕਰ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਜਾਵੇਗੀ ਅਤੇ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਟੈਸਟ **ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026** ਵਿੱਚ ਹੀ ਲਿਆ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ। ਉਮੀਦਵਾਰਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਅਪਡੇਟਸ ਲਈ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਦੀ ਅਧਿਕਾਰਤ ਵੈੱਬਸਾਈਟ 'ਤੇ ਨਜ਼ਰ ਰੱਖਣ ਦੀ ਸਲਾਹ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ।

📚 ਹੋਰ ਮਹੱਤਵਪੂਰਨ ਅਪਡੇਟਸ ਅਤੇ Mock Tests

PUNJAB PTI RECRUITMENT MOCK TEST SERIES 1-8 TESTS ( Latest Syllabus)

Punjab Education Department: Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Application Deadline Extended

Published Date: August 17, 2026 | Authority: Education Recruitment Directorate, Punjab

The Directorate of Education Recruitment, Punjab has officially issued a public notice regarding the ongoing recruitment drive for Lecturer Cadre posts. Candidates now have additional time to submit their applications online.

Key Recruitment Highlights

Post Name: Lecturer (Various Subjects)
Total Vacancies: 1,013 Posts
- Backlog Vacancies: 184
- New Vacancies: 829
Original Advertisement Date: June 25, 2026
Previous Last Date: August 17, 2026
New Extended Last Date: August 27, 2026

How to Apply

Eligible candidates who have not yet applied can submit their application forms through the official Punjab Education Department portal before the revised deadline of August 27, 2026.

14-8-2026

Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026 – Mock Tests & Previous Year Question Papers

If you want pdf of this mock test at Rs 50/ then WhatsApp to 9464496353

Prepare for the Punjab Lecturer Recruitment Examination 2026 with subject-wise mock tests, previous year question papers and fully solved papers. The following resources are arranged subject-wise and series-wise for easy preparation.

1. Punjabi Lecturer – Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers

Punjabi Lecturer Mock Test 1 – Online Mock Test Series
Open Punjabi Lecturer Mock Test 1
Punjabi Lecturer Mock Test 2 – Set 2: 150 MCQs
Open Punjabi Lecturer Mock Test 2 – Set 2
Punjabi Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2016 – Fully Solved
Open Punjabi Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2016

2. Punjab History Lecturer – Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers

Punjab History Lecturer Mock Test Series 2026 – 150 MCQs
Open History Lecturer Mock Test Series 2026
History Lecturer Cadre Mock Test 1
Open History Lecturer Cadre Mock Test 1
Punjab History Lecturer Mock Test 2026 – Set 2 | 150 Important MCQs with Answers
Open History Lecturer Mock Test 2026 – Set 2
Punjab History Lecturer Recruitment Question Paper 2016 – Solved
Open Punjab History Lecturer Question Paper 2016

3. Physics Lecturer – Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers

Punjab Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026
Open Punjab Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026
Punjab Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026 – Set 2
Open Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026 – Set 2
Punjab Physics Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2021 – With Answer Key
Open Physics Lecturer Previous Year Paper 2021
Punjab Physics Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2016 – Solved With Answer Key
Open Physics Lecturer Previous Year Paper 2016

4. English Lecturer – Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers

English Lecturer Recruitment Examination – Online Mock Test Set 1: 150 MCQs
Open English Lecturer Mock Test – Set 1
Punjab English Lecturer Recruitment 2026 – Mock Quiz
Open Punjab English Lecturer Mock Quiz
Punjab English Lecturer Recruitment – Mock Test 2
Open English Lecturer Mock Test 2
Punjab English Question Paper 2021 – Solved
Open Punjab English Question Paper 2021

5. Political Science Lecturer – Previous Year Paper

Punjab Political Science Lecturer Recruitment Question Paper 2016 – Solved
Open Political Science Lecturer Question Paper 2016

6. Chemistry Lecturer – Previous Year Paper

Punjab Chemistry Lecturer Recruitment Question Paper 2016 – Solved
Open Chemistry Lecturer Question Paper 2016

7. Commerce lecturer Mock Test

Important Preparation Resources

These Punjab Lecturer preparation resources include online mock tests, 150 MCQs practice sets, previous year question papers and solved papers. Candidates can use the subject-wise links above for systematic preparation for the Lecturer Recruitment Examination 2026.

Preparation Tip: First attempt the mock test without checking the answers. After completing the test, analyse your mistakes and revise the relevant topics from the syllabus. Previous year question papers should also be practised to understand the question pattern and difficulty level.

Punjab Lecturer Mock Test Series – Quick Navigation

10-8-2026

3-8-2026 ਪੰਜਾਬ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਭਰਤੀ 2026: ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵਲੋਂ 1013 ਪੋਸਟਾਂ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਨਵਾਂ ਪਬਲਿਕ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਜਾਰੀ!

ਨਵੀਂ ਅਪਡੇਟ

📢 ਪੰਜਾਬ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਭਰਤੀ 2026: ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵਲੋਂ 1013 ਪੋਸਟਾਂ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਨਵਾਂ ਪਬਲਿਕ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਜਾਰੀ!

ਮਿਤੀ: 03 ਅਗਸਤ 2026

ਦਫ਼ਤਰ: ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟਰ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਭਰਤੀ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟੋਰੇਟ, ਪੰਜਾਬ (ਐਸ.ਏ.ਐਸ. ਨਗਰ, ਮੋਹਾਲੀ)

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵਿੱਚ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਦੀਆਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਲਈ ਅਪਲਾਈ ਕਰਨ ਵਾਲੇ ਉਮੀਦਵਾਰਾਂ ਲਈ ਇੱਕ ਅਹਿਮ ਖ਼ਬਰ ਹੈ। ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਭਰਤੀ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟੋਰੇਟ ਵੱਲੋਂ 1013 ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਭਰਤੀ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਇੱਕ ਜ਼ਰੂਰੀ ਪਬਲਿਕ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ।

📌 ਭਰਤੀ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਮੁੱਖ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ

ਕੁੱਲ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ: 1013
ਬੈਕਲਾਗ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ: 184
ਨਵੀਆਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ: 829
ਇਸ਼ਤਿਹਾਰ ਜਾਰੀ ਹੋਣ ਦੀ ਮਿਤੀ: 25.06.2026

🔄 ਨੋਟਿਸ ਵਿੱਚ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਨਵਾਂ ਬਦਲਾਅ (ਸ਼ੋਧ)

ਪਹਿਲਾਂ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤੇ ਇਸ਼ਤਿਹਾਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਬਾਰਡਰ ਅਤੇ ਨਾਨ-ਬਾਰਡਰ ਵਰਗੀਕਰਨ ਬਾਰੇ ਇੱਕ ਨੋਟ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਸੀ, ਜਿਸ ਨੂੰ ਹੁਣ ਡਾਇਰੈਕਟਰ ਸਕੂਲ ਐਜੂਕੇਸ਼ਨ (ਸੈ) ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪ੍ਰਾਪਤ ਪੱਤਰ ਮੈਮੋ ਨੰ: ਈ-1068898/2026208490 (ਮਿਤੀ 31.07.2026) ਦੇ ਆਧਾਰ 'ਤੇ ਬਦਲ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ।

ਨਵਾਂ ਨੋਟ ਹੁਣ ਇਸ ਤਰ੍ਹਾਂ ਪੜ੍ਹਿਆ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ:

"ਇਹ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਬਾਰਡਰ ਅਤੇ ਨਾਨ-ਬਾਰਡਰ ਏਰੀਏ ਦੀਆਂ ਹਨ। ਇਸ ਭਰਤੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਸਟੇਸ਼ਨ ਅਲਾਟਮੈਂਟ ਸਮੇਂ ਮੈਰਿਟ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਵਿਦਿਆਰਥੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਪੜ੍ਹਾਈ ਅਤੇ ਲੋਕ ਹਿੱਤਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਮੁੱਖ ਰੱਖਦੇ ਹੋਏ ਖ਼ਾਲੀ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਭਰਨ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਵਿਚਾਰਿਆ ਜਾਵੇਗਾ।"

🔑 ਹੋਰ ਜ਼ਰੂਰੀ ਨੁਕਤੇ

ਰਿਜ਼ਰਵੇਸ਼ਨ: ਇਹ ਭਰਤੀ ਵੱਖ-ਵੱਖ ਕੈਟਾਗਰੀਆਂ ਦੇ ਰਿਜ਼ਰਵੇਸ਼ਨ ਰੋਸਟਰ ਦੇ ਨੁਕਤਿਆਂ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਹੀ ਕੀਤੀ ਜਾ ਰਹੀ ਹੈ।
ਬਾਕੀ ਸ਼ਰਤਾਂ: ਬਾਕੀ ਸਾਰੀਆਂ ਸ਼ਰਤਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਬਾਨਾ (Terms and Conditions) ਵਿਭਾਗ ਦੀ ਵੈੱਬਸਾਈਟ 'ਤੇ ਉਪਲਬਧ ਮੁੱਖ ਇਸ਼ਤਿਹਾਰ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਹੀ ਰਹਿਣਗੀਆਂ।

🌐 ਵਿਭਾਗ ਦੀ ਸੰਪਰਕ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ

ਈ-ਮੇਲ: recruitment@punjabeducation.gov.in

ਫੋਨ ਨੰਬਰ: 0172-3115378

ਅਧਿਕਾਰਤ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਅਤੇ ਹੋਰ ਅਪਡੇਟਸ ਲਈ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਦੀ ਵੈੱਬਸਾਈਟ 'ਤੇ ਨਜ਼ਰ ਬਣਾਈ ਰੱਖੋ।

9-7-2026 LECTURER CADRE RECRUITMENT SYLLABUS UPLOADED

Syllabus for Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026

Punjab School lecturer Recruitment link for online application active

1-07-2026:

ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਕੂਲ ਲੈਕਚਰਾਰ ਭਰਤੀ ਲਈ ਆਨਲਾਈਨ ਅਰਜ਼ੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਮੰਗ ਕੀਤੀ ਹੈ। ਇਹਨਾਂ ਅਸਾਮੀਆਂ ਤੇ ਭਰਤੀ ਲਈ ਆਨਲਾਈਨ ਅਪਲਾਈ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਲਿੰਕ ਐਕਟਿਵ ਕਰ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ। ਆਨਲਾਈਨ ਅਪਲਾਈ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਲਿੰਕ ਇੱਥੇ ਕਲਿੱਕ ਕਰੋ।

LINK FOR APPLICATION FOR LECTURER RECRUITMENT 2026

Advertisement Lecturer Backlog 2026

Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026: Apply Online for 1013 Fresh & Backlog Vacancies

Published on: June 19, 2026 | Authority: Education Recruitment Directorate, Punjab

1. Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Overview
2. Detailed Subject-Wise Vacancy Breakdown
3. Eligibility Criteria & Terms
4. How to Apply Online
5. Official Notification Details
6. Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

The Education Recruitment Directorate, Punjab has officially released two fresh public appointment notifications on June 18, 2026, announcing massive vacancies for the Lecturer Cadre. A total of 1,013 posts are being filled, which includes 829 fresh recruitment vacancies and 184 backlog recruitment vacancies across various subjects. This is a golden opportunity for candidates seeking government teaching jobs in Punjab.

Detailed terms, conditions, and eligibility criteria will be accessible on the official portal starting June 23, 2026. Read on for the comprehensive subject-wise breakdown, key dates, and official contact details.

Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Overview

The recruitment drive aims to strengthen the state's educational framework by hiring qualified Lecturers for senior secondary classes. Below is a quick summary of the notification details:

Recruitment Attribute	Details
Department	Education Department, Punjab (Education Recruitment Directorate)
Post Name	Lecturer Cadre (Fresh & Backlog)
Total Vacancies	1,013 Posts (829 Fresh + 184 Backlog)
Notification Date	June 18, 2026
Detailed Guidelines Release Date	June 23, 2026
Official Website	erd.punjab.gov.in

Detailed Subject-Wise Vacancy Breakdown

The vacancies are split into two categories: New Posts (Fresh) and Backlog Posts. Check out the exact subject-wise distribution to find your specialty:

Subject Name	Fresh Vacancies (New Posts)	Backlog Vacancies	Total Posts
Lecturer History	200	10	210
Lecturer Political Science	118	13	131
Lecturer English	111	30	141
Lecturer Punjabi	71	28	99
Lecturer Commerce	71	27	98
Lecturer Math	91	14	105
Lecturer Physics	46	12	58
Lecturer Economics	35	15	50
Lecturer Chemistry	28	13	41
Lecturer Hindi	25	4	29
Lecturer Biology	25	12	37
Lecturer Geography	8	6	14
Total	829	184	1013

Eligibility Criteria & Terms

While the highly detailed educational qualifications, age limit parameters, and relaxation rules will go live on the recruitment portal on June 23, 2026, standard department mandates generally include:

Educational Qualification: Relevant Master's Degree in the specific subject with at least 55% marks along with a B.Ed. degree from a recognized university.
Language Proficiency: Matriculation (Class 10) level Punjabi language qualification is mandatory for Punjab government jobs.

How to Apply Online for Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026

Follow these simple steps once the application portal opens:

Navigate to the official portal: erd.punjab.gov.in.
Click on the "Latest Recruitment" or "Public Appointments" link on the homepage.
Locate the application link for Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026.
Register with your active email ID and mobile number to generate registration credentials.
Fill out the application form with your academic details, subject selection, and personal details.
Upload required scanned documents, review your entries, pay the online application fee, and submit.

Official Notification & Contact Details

Note on Verification: Ensure all personal record tracking matches these parameters before filing applications.

For official inquiries or clarification regarding these vacancies, candidates can reach out directly to the department via the official channels listed below:

Address: Office Director Education Recruitment Directorate, Punjab, Sector 60, Phase 3B1, S.A.S Nagar (Mohali)
Official Email Address: recruitment@punjabeducation.gov.in
Official Helpline Number: 0172-3115378
Official Public Notice Numbers:
- Fresh Vacancies Circular: ਈ-1146456/3.3.6/2026166938
- Backlog Vacancies Circular: ਈ-1146456/3.3.6/2026166940

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. When will the full terms and conditions be available for the Lecturer Recruitment?

The complete terms, conditions, detailed syllabus, and guidelines can be viewed on the official department portal starting from June 23, 2026.

2. What is the total number of Lecturer vacancies released?

There are a total of 1,013 vacancies available. This consists of 829 fresh vacancies and 184 backlog vacancies distributed across 12 distinct teaching subjects.

3. Where can I find the official application form?

You can check the notifications and fill out the online applications directly on the official portal of the Education Recruitment Directorate at erd.punjab.gov.in.

4. Can I apply for multiple subjects?

Yes, provided you meet the discrete educational eligibility criteria and individual qualifications outlined for each specific subject in the comprehensive guidelines releasing on June 23.

Boost Your Prep: Study Material & Mock Tests

wait is over for the Punjab PPSC Lecturer Recruitment 2026. Get a head start with our exclusive study materials for the Punjab school education lecturer recruitment 2026!

🔥 Physics Lecturer Preparation

👉 Punjab Physics Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (Solved) 👉 Punjab Physics Lecturer Previous Year Question Paper 2021 (Answer Key) 👉 Punjab Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026 (Set 1) 👉 Punjab Physics Lecturer Mock Test 2026 (Set 2)

📚 Language Lecturers Preparation

👉 Punjab Hindi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 👉 Punjab Hindi Lecturer Guess Paper Quiz 👉 Punjabi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 2 👉 Punjabi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 1

ALSO READ Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 Notification Out, Apply Online for 1013 Posts

Published on: June 11, 2026 | PB.JOBSOFTODAY.IN

Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 Notification Out, Apply Online for 1013 Posts

Hey future educators! Welcome back to your favorite hub for Sarkari Naukri Punjab 2026 updates. If you have been waiting for the Latest Punjab Teaching Jobs 2026, the wait is almost over. The much-anticipated Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 is creating a massive buzz right now!

The Punjab Education Department is gearing up to release the official Lecturer Cadre Punjab Notification 2026. With expectations soaring for the Punjab Lecturer Cadre 1013 posts 2026, candidates are already diving deep into their preparation. Whether you are aiming for government lecturer vacancy Punjab or PPSC teaching jobs 2026, this is the ultimate opportunity for you to secure a prestigious Grade 'B' position in the Punjab school education jobs sector.

📑 What's in this Post?

Punjab Govt Lecturer Jobs 2026 Overview
Punjab Lecturer Bharti 2026 Eligibility Criteria
Punjab Lecturer Cadre Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2026
Punjab Lecturer Cadre Subject Wise Posts 2026
Punjab Lecturer Selection Process & Salary
How to Apply for Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026
Download Mock Tests & Previous Papers

Punjab Lecturer Recruitment Notification: Quick Overview

Before we get into the heavy details, let's look at the basic framework of the upcoming Punjab Lecturer Vacancy 2026. This recruitment drive is a significant part of the Upcoming Punjab Recruitment 2026 cycle.

Recruitment Board	Punjab Education Department / PPSC
Post Name	School Lecturer (Various Subjects)
Total Vacancies	Expected Punjab Lecturer Cadre 1000 posts 2026
Job Location	Punjab Govt Schools
Category	Punjab Govt Jobs 2026 / Teaching Jobs
Application Mode	Online

Punjab Lecturer Bharti 2026 Eligibility Criteria

As educators, we know how strict the department can be with document verification. The Punjab Lecturer eligibility 2026 has been clearly outlined in the recent 5th Amendment to the Punjab Educational Service Rules. If you want to grab one of these Lecturer jobs in Punjab government schools, here is exactly what you need.

1. Science Stream Eligibility

For those teaching the heavy sciences, the rules are very clear. For instance, if you are applying for Physics, you need an M.Sc in Physics, Applied Physics, Nuclear Physics, or Electronics Physics with at least 55% marks, plus a B.Ed with a relevant Science/Physics teaching subject. Similar rules apply for Chemistry and Biology (Botany/Zoology/Bio-Tech), requiring a 55% Master's degree and a corresponding B.Ed teaching subject.

2. Humanities & Social Sciences Eligibility

If you are applying for History, Political Science, Economics, Geography, or Sociology, pay close attention: You must have an M.A. in your respective subject with at least 55% marks, a B.Ed with a relevant teaching subject, AND you must have studied your core subject as an elective for all three years of your Graduation.

        💡 Pro Tip for Punjab Lecturer eligibility 2026: Equivalent qualifications are accepted across disciplines, provided you have a valid equivalency certificate from a recognized University as per UGC guidelines!
    

Punjab Lecturer Cadre Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2026

The SCERT Punjab is working on an "Ultra-Urgent" basis to finalize the Punjab Lecturer syllabus 2026. While we wait for the official Punjab Lecturer Vacancy 2026 notification pdf, here is the confirmed exam pattern structure you need to prepare for right now.

The Mandatory Qualifying Paper: Before your main subject knowledge is tested, you MUST clear the 50-mark mandatory Punjabi language paper. This is a 10th-standard level O.M.C (Objective Multiple Choice) exam. Even if you top your main subject, failing this paper means you are out of the Punjab Lecturer selection process.

Once you clear the Punjabi qualifying exam, your final merit will be based entirely on the main subject written examination.

Punjab Lecturer Cadre Subject Wise Posts 2026

Candidates are eagerly searching for the Punjab Lecturer subject wise vacancy breakdown. While the exact numbers for the Punjab Lecturer Cadre 1013 posts 2026 are pending in the final notification, the Lecturer cadre posts Punjab subjects will include:

Sciences: Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics.
Languages: Punjabi, Hindi, English.
Humanities: History, Political Science, Economics, Geography, Sociology.
Commerce & Physical Education.

Punjab Lecturer Selection Process & Salary in Punjab

The Punjab Lecturer selection process is straightforward and transparent. It consists of the Mandatory Punjabi Qualifying Test, the Main Subject Written Examination, and finally, Document Verification. There is usually no interview for these posts, making the written test the ultimate decider.

Regarding the Punjab Lecturer salary in Punjab, candidates appointed to these Punjab Govt school lecturer jobs will receive compensation according to the 7th Pay Commission guidelines as adopted by the Punjab Government, which offers a highly lucrative and stable pay scale for Grade 'B' officers.

How to Apply for Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026

Wondering about the Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 apply online process? Once the Punjab Lecturer exam date 2026 and official portal are live, you will need to follow these steps:

Visit the official Punjab Education Recruitment Board website.
Find the link for the Punjab Lecturer application form 2026.
Register with your basic details to generate an application number.
Fill out the detailed application form and upload your scanned photo, signature, and educational certificates.
Pay the required application fee online.
Submit and print the form before the Punjab Lecturer Recruitment 2026 last date.

Download Notification PDF (Coming Soon) Apply Online Punjab Lecturer 2026 View Syllabus & Exam Pattern

Boost Your Prep: Study Material & Mock Tests

Don't wait for the Punjab PPSC Lecturer Recruitment 2026 details to drop before you start studying. Get a head start with our exclusive study materials for the Punjab school education lecturer recruitment 2026!

🔥 Physics Lecturer Preparation

📚 Language Lecturers Preparation

👉 Punjab Hindi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 👉 Punjab Hindi Lecturer Guess Paper Quiz 👉 Punjabi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 2 👉 Punjabi Lecturer Recruitment 2026 Mock Test 1

Bookmark this page for the latest Punjab Teacher Recruitment Latest Update! We will update the exact Punjab Lecturer Cadre Recruitment 2026 application dates and official links the moment they are released by the department.

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