PSEB BORD EXAM 2027: PSEB Model Test Paper / Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Class 8th , 10th & 12th ( Arts/ Science/Commerce)

Model Test Paper / Sample Question Paper 2026-27

Class 12th

Class 12th (DA Students)

Class 10th

Class 10th (DA Students)

Class 8th

Class 8th (DA Students)

COMPUTER SCIENCE (PUN)

Holiday on 28 September 2026: ਸ਼ਹੀਦ ਭਗਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਦੇ ਜਨਮ ਦਿਹਾੜੇ ਮੌਕੇ 28 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਗਜ਼ਟਿਡ ਛੁੱਟੀ....

# ਸ਼ਹੀਦ ਭਗਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਦੇ ਜਨਮ ਦਿਹਾੜੇ ਮੌਕੇ 28 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਗਜ਼ਟਿਡ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਐਲਾਨਣ ਦੀ ਮੰਗ; ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਿਵਲ ਸਕੱਤਰੇਤ ਸਟਾਫ਼ ਐਸੋਸੀਏਸ਼ਨ ਨੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਲਿਖਿਆ ਪੱਤਰ

**ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ: 26 ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026

ਦੇਸ਼ ਦੀ ਆਜ਼ਾਦੀ ਦੇ ਮਹਾਨ ਸ਼ਹੀਦ, ਸ਼ਹੀਦ-ਏ-ਆਜ਼ਮ ਸਰਦਾਰ ਭਗਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਜਨਮ ਦਿਹਾੜੇ ਦੇ ਸਨਮਾਨ ਵਜੋਂ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਿਵਲ ਸਕੱਤਰੇਤ ਸਟਾਫ਼ ਐਸੋਸੀਏਸ਼ਨ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਤੋਂ 28 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਗਜ਼ਟਿਡ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਐਲਾਨਣ ਦੀ ਮੰਗ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ। ਇਸ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਐਸੋਸੀਏਸ਼ਨ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਭਗਵੰਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਮਾਨ ਨੂੰ ਇੱਕ ਰਸਮੀ ਪੱਤਰ ਭੇਜਿਆ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ।

### ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪਹਿਲਾਂ ਐਲਾਨੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ ਰਾਖਵੀਂ ਛੁੱਟੀ

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਿਵਲ ਸਕੱਤਰੇਤ ਸਟਾਫ਼ ਐਸੋਸੀਏਸ਼ਨ ਦੇ ਚੇਅਰਮੈਨ ਸੁਖਚੈਨ ਸਿੰਘ ਖਹਿਰਾ, ਪ੍ਰਧਾਨ ਸੁਸ਼ੀਲ ਕੁਮਾਰ (ਫ਼ੌਜੀ) ਅਤੇ ਜਨਰਲ ਸਕੱਤਰ ਸਾਹਿਲ ਸ਼ਰਮਾ ਦੀ ਅਗਵਾਈ ਹੇਠ ਭੇਜੇ ਗਏ ਪੱਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਦੱਸਿਆ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ ਕਿ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ 28 ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026 (ਸੋਮਵਾਰ) ਨੂੰ ਪਹਿਲਾਂ ਹੀ 'ਰਾਖਵੀਂ ਛੁੱਟੀ' (Restricted Holiday) ਵਜੋਂ ਸੂਚੀਬੱਧ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੋਇਆ ਹੈ।

### ਰਾਖਵੀਂ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਨੂੰ ਗਜ਼ਟਿਡ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਬਦਲਣ ਦੀ ਅਪੀਲ

ਐਸੋਸੀਏਸ਼ਨ ਨੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਅਪੀਲ ਕਰਦਿਆਂ ਕਿਹਾ ਕਿ ਸ਼ਹੀਦ-ਏ-ਆਜ਼ਮ ਸਰਦਾਰ ਭਗਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਦੇਸ਼ ਦੀ ਆਜ਼ਾਦੀ ਅਤੇ ਹੱਕਾਂ ਲਈ ਆਪਣਾ ਸਰਵਉੱਚ ਬਲੀਦਾਨ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਸੀ। ਉਹ ਸਮੁੱਚੇ ਦੇਸ਼, ਖ਼ਾਸ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੀ ਨੌਜਵਾਨ ਪੀੜ੍ਹੀ ਲਈ ਦੇਸ਼-ਭਗਤੀ, ਕੁਰਬਾਨੀ ਅਤੇ ਸਮਾਜਿਕ ਚੇਤਨਾ ਦੇ ਪ੍ਰਤੀਕ ਹਨ। ਉਨ੍ਹਾਂ ਦੇ ਵਿਚਾਰਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਕੁਰਬਾਨੀ ਤੋਂ ਪ੍ਰੇਰਨਾ ਲੈਣ ਲਈ ਹਰ ਸਾਲ ਇਹ ਦਿਹਾੜਾ ਪੂਰੇ ਉਤਸ਼ਾਹ ਅਤੇ ਸਤਿਕਾਰ ਨਾਲ ਮਨਾਇਆ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ।

ਪੱਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਮੰਗ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ ਕਿ 28 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਦੀ ਰਾਖਵੀਂ ਛੁੱਟੀ ਨੂੰ ਮੁਕੰਮਲ **ਗਜ਼ਟਿਡ ਛੁੱਟੀ (Gazetted Holiday)** ਵਿੱਚ ਤਬਦੀਲ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾਵੇ, ਤਾਂ ਜੋ ਸਮੂਹ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮ ਅਤੇ ਆਮ ਲੋਕ ਸ਼ਹੀਦ ਭਗਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਜੀ ਦੇ ਜਨਮ ਦਿਹਾੜੇ ਨੂੰ ਸਮਰਪਿਤ ਸਮਾਗਮਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਵੱਧ-ਚੜ੍ਹ ਕੇ ਹਿੱਸਾ ਲੈ ਸਕਣ ਅਤੇ ਉਨ੍ਹਾਂ ਦੇ ਜੀਵਨ ਤੇ ਵਿਚਾਰਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਯਾਦ ਕਰ ਸਕਣ।

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Punjab English Lecturer Question Paper (26-09-2026) –Unofficial Answer key

1. Animal communication is context-bound such that they can communicate only about the immediate environment while human language is context-free and humans can communicate about objects and events not present in their immediate time and place. The phenomenon is termed:

(A) Redundancy
(B) Nonverbal communication
(C) Sign language
(D) Displacement

Correct Answer: (D) Displacement [1]

2. The property of arbitrariness of human language refers to:

(A) No inherent connection between sounds and symbols
(B) No inherent connection between speech and writing
(C) Diversity of spellings in English language
(D) Diversity of pronunciation in English language

Correct Answer: (A) No inherent connection between sounds and symbols [1]

3. Which of the following is not important for smooth intercultural communication?

(A) Use of common language
(B) Degree of formality and politeness
(C) Touching each other while speaking
(D) Values and world-views

Correct Answer: (C) Touching each other while speaking [1]

4. Which of the following is not a mode of mass communication?

(A) Radio
(B) Newspaper
(C) Telephone
(D) Cinema

Correct Answer: (C) Telephone

5. R.P. English is the prestigious, South-eastern accent of British English. What does it stand for?

(A) Revised Pronunciation
(B) Reformed Pronunciation
(C) Received Pronunciation
(D) Renewed Pronunciation

Correct Answer: (C) Received Pronunciation

6. Which of the following is not part of the articulatory system?

(A) Lips
(B) Larynx
(C) Tongue
(D) Teeth

Correct Answer: (B) Larynx

7. Which of the following plays an important role in producing nasal sounds by lowering itself?

(A) Tongue
(B) Teeth ridge
(C) Hard palate
(D) Soft palate (velum)

Correct Answer: (D) Soft palate (velum)

8. Its front part is prominent in the neck and is commonly called 'Adam's apple'. The structure described is:

(A) Pharynx
(B) Larynx
(C) Esophagus
(D) Lower jaw

Correct Answer: (B) Larynx

9. In R.P. English there are _______ consonants.

(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 44
(D) 21

Correct Answer: (B) 24

10. In English the sounds /p b/ /t d/ and /k g/ come under the category of:

(A) affricates
(B) plosives
(C) fricatives
(D) nasals

Correct Answer: (B) plosives

11. The following feature of speech helps to determine whether a particular word is noun/adjective or verb:

(A) Word accent (stress)
(B) Intonation
(C) Rhythm
(D) Juncture

Correct Answer: (A) Word accent (stress)

12. Which of the following is the chief means within connected speech by which the speaker conveys his attitudes and emotions like politeness, assertiveness etc.?

(A) Vowels
(B) Consonants
(C) Intonation
(D) Word stress

Correct Answer: (C) Intonation

13. Which of the following is not a grammatical function of falling tone?

(A) statements which are complete and definite
(B) wh- questions which are matter-of-fact
(C) commands
(D) yes/no type of questions

Correct Answer: (D) yes/no type of questions

14. A morpheme is the _______ unit of form that has meaning in a given language.

(A) largest
(B) smallest
(C) commonest
(D) rarest

Correct Answer: (B) smallest

15. The study of words in terms of word structure is called:

(A) Phonology
(B) Morphology
(C) Syntax
(D) Semantics

Correct Answer: (B) Morphology

16. The process of adding affixes to a base without changing its form class or part of speech is called:

(A) Inflection
(B) Derivation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer: (A) Inflection

17. Affixes refer to:

(A) free morphemes
(B) bound morphemes
(C) compound words
(D) sentences

Correct Answer: (B) bound morphemes

18. The doubling of vowels or consonants in a word is called:

(A) Gemination
(B) Assimilation
(C) Degemination
(D) Dissimilation

Correct Answer: (A) Gemination

19. Apocope is a process of word formation in which:

(A) There is repetition of identical forms.
(B) There is elimination of medial vowels or consonants.
(C) There is the loss of final sound or syllable.
(D) There is a change in the order of the elements of a morpheme.

Correct Answer: (C) There is the loss of final sound or syllable.

20. One of the limitations of Phrase Structure Grammars is:

(A) That they do not show relationships between discontinuous constituents.
(B) That they do not show relationships between continuous units.
(C) They do not show relationships between words in a sentence.
(D) They do not show relationships between phrases in a sentence.

Correct Answer: (A) That they do not show relationships between discontinuous constituents.

21. The word 'bank' is a classic example of:

(A) Structural ambiguity
(B) Clarity in language
(C) Lexical ambiguity
(D) Stylistic ambiguity

Correct Answer: (C) Lexical ambiguity

22. The phrase 'very old men and women' illustrate:

(A) lexical ambiguity in language.
(B) structural ambiguity in language.
(C) that there is no ambiguity.
(D) Both (A) and (B).

Correct Answer: (B) structural ambiguity in language.

23. Which of the following is a rule under Transformational Generative Grammar?

(A) Affix hopping rule
(B) Do-support rule
(C) Negative placement rule
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

24. Who wrote the book Syntactic Structures in 1957?

(A) Leonard Bloomfield
(B) Ferdinand de Saussure
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) Noam Chomsky

Correct Answer: (D) Noam Chomsky

25. In Chomsky's Aspects model, the Deep Structure is changed by means of Transformations into:

(A) Superior Structure
(B) Standard Structure
(C) Surface Structure
(D) Simple Structure

Correct Answer: (C) Surface Structure

26. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Learning a language is not limited to learning the formal systems.
(B) Learning a language also means learning the strategies of effective communication.
(C) Sociolinguistics and Pragmatics have moved the focus of language learning from formal systems to its communicative and functional aspects.
(D) All are correct.

Correct Answer: (D) All are correct.

27. When the meaning of one form is included in the meaning of another, the relationship is called:

(A) Synonymy
(B) Antonymy
(C) Hyponymy
(D) Polysemy

Correct Answer: (C) Hyponymy

28. Which of the following expressions qualify for deixis?

(A) Damp, shallow
(B) Moye, assemble
(C) Tomorrow, here
(D) Dog, cabbage

Correct Answer: (C) Tomorrow, here

29. Turn-taking is an important concept under:

(A) Corpus Analysis
(B) Conversation Analysis
(C) Semantic Analysis
(D) Truth Analysis

Correct Answer: (B) Conversation Analysis

30. The words or phrases used to indicate that we are not really sure that what we are saying is sufficiently correct or complete are known as:

(A) Adjacency pairs
(B) Hedges
(C) Maxims
(D) Schemas

Correct Answer: (B) Hedges [3]

31. If linguistic groups are identified as middle class, working class, upper class etc., the speech varieties under study are referred to:

(A) Idiolect
(B) Dialect
(C) Sociolect
(D) Registers

Correct Answer: (C) Sociolect

32. When people attempt to reduce social distance and use forms that are similar to those used by the person we are talking to, the phenomenon is called:

(A) Divergence
(B) Slang
(C) Jargon
(D) Convergence

Correct Answer: (D) Convergence

33. Who gave the concept of 'Communicative Competence'?

(A) Noam Chomsky
(B) Roman Jacobson
(C) Bronislaw Malinowski
(D) Dell Hymes

Correct Answer: (D) Dell Hymes

34. Communicative Competence can be best illustrated as:

(A) There are rules of use without which rules of grammar are of no use.
(B) Language is not just an instrument of reflection.
(C) Linguistic theory is primarily concerned with an ideal native speaker-hearer.
(D) Linguistic theory is primarily concerned with a completely homogeneous speech community.

Correct Answer: (A) There are rules of use without which rules of grammar are of no use.

35. In his Preface to Pygmalion _____ says that 'it is impossible for an Englishman to open his mouth without making some other Englishman despise him'.

(A) G.B. Shaw
(B) Arthur Miller
(C) Henrik Ibsen
(D) Oscar Wilde

Correct Answer: (A) G.B. Shaw

36. According to Bernstein, the middle class uses:

(A) Restricted codes
(B) Elaborated codes
(C) Secret codes
(D) Multiple codes

Correct Answer: (B) Elaborated codes

37. Who reviewed Bernstein's verbal deprivation theory and cited that black children living in ghettoes have same competence in language as everyone else?

(A) William Labov
(B) J.L. Austin
(C) John Searle
(D) Charles Morris

Correct Answer: (A) William Labov

38. There have been constant attempts to establish and institutionalize an Indian accent of English called:

(A) National English (NE)
(B) Indian English (IE)
(C) General Indian English (GIE)
(D) Official Indian English (OIE)

Correct Answer: (C) General Indian English (GIE)

39. In Browning's My Last Duchess, the Duke's apparently courteous description of the Duchess gradually exposes his possessiveness and authoritarianism. This effect is primarily produced by Browning's use of:

(A) Objective narration
(B) Dramatic monologue
(C) Epistolary narration
(D) Stream of consciousness

Correct Answer: (B) Dramatic monologue

40. Which sequence places the following works in approximately correct chronological order?

(A) The Waste Land -> Lyrical Ballads -> The Rape of the Lock -> Middlemarch
(B) The Rape of the Lock -> Lyrical Ballads -> Middlemarch -> The Waste Land
(C) Lyrical Ballads -> The Rape of the Lock -> The Waste Land -> Middlemarch
(D) Middlemarch -> The Rape of the Lock -> Lyrical Ballads -> The Waste Land

Correct Answer: (B) The Rape of the Lock -> Lyrical Ballads -> Middlemarch -> The Waste Land

41. "Bickerstaff" pamphlets are associated with:

(A) Charles Dickens
(B) Richard Steele
(C) Joseph Addison
(D) Jonathon Swift

Correct Answer: (D) Jonathon Swift

42. Butler, Dryden, and Rochester were among the thinkers who followed the doctrine of which philosopher of skepticism who argued that knowledge derives from our senses, but the inaccuracy of our senses makes reliable knowledge impossible to achieve?

(A) Voltaire
(B) Hobbes
(C) Rousseau
(D) Montaigne

Correct Answer: (D) Montaigne

43. In Donne's "A Valediction : Forbidding Mourning", the lovers are compared to the two legs of a:

(A) Compass
(B) Clock
(C) Balance
(D) Telescope

Correct Answer: (A) Compass

44. Henry Fielding's Joseph Andrews parodies Samuel Richardson's Pamela, but takes its model from what work of continental literature?

(A) Dante's Divine Comedy
(B) Rabelais's Gargantua and Pantagruel
(C) Boccaccio's Decameron
(D) Cervantes's Don Quixote

Correct Answer: (D) Cervantes's Don Quixote

45. Dryden wrote _____ in 1660 to welcome the new regime of King Charles II.

(A) Absalom and Achitophel
(B) Astraea Redux
(C) Annus Mirabilis
(D) Mac Flecknoe

Correct Answer: (B) Astraea Redux [4]

46. Which writer is most strongly associated with the fictional town of Wessex?

(A) Graham Greene
(B) Thomas Hardy
(C) Jane Austen
(D) Charles Dickens

Correct Answer: (B) Thomas Hardy

47. The publication of Lyrical Ballads in 1798 is conventionally regarded as a landmark in:

(A) The emergence of English Romanticism
(B) The beginning of Victorian literature
(C) The rise of Modernism
(D) The Restoration of drama

Correct Answer: (A) The emergence of English Romanticism

48. Which of the following novelists does not belong to the Victorian period?

(A) Charlotte Brontë
(B) Robert Browning
(C) Charles Dickens
(D) Jane Austen

Correct Answer: (D) Jane Austen

49. Which Shelley poem contains the famous line concerning the "unacknowledged legislators of the world"?

(A) Adonais
(B) Prometheus Unbound
(C) A Defence of Poetry
(D) Ode to the West Wind

Correct Answer: (C) A Defence of Poetry

50. James Joyce's Ulysses is structurally connected to:

(A) Homer's Odyssey
(B) Virgil's Aeneid
(C) Dante's Divine Comedy
(D) Milton's Paradise Lost

Correct Answer: (A) Homer's Odyssey

51. Which of the following is correctly matched with its dominant formal characteristic?

(A) Byron — Don Juan — ottava rima
(B) Shelley — Adonais — heroic couplets
(C) Keats — Endymion — terza rima
(D) Coleridge — Kubla Khan — Spenserian stanza

Correct Answer: (A) Byron — Don Juan — ottava rima

52. The Room on the Roof, Ruskin Bond's first novel, centres on:

(A) Moorthy, a Gandhian activist
(B) Raju, a railway guide in Shimla
(C) Sweety, a young ticket collector in Mussoorie
(D) Rusty, an Anglo-Indian adolescent living in Dehra

Correct Answer: (D) Rusty, an Anglo-Indian adolescent living in Dehra

53. Which novel by Salman Rushdie features the character Moraes Zogoiby, who is born with the clock of the centuries ticking inside him, and blends Indian history with Jewish-Cochin heritage?

(A) Midnight's Children
(B) The Moor's Last Sigh
(C) Shalimar the Clown
(D) The Satanic Verses

Correct Answer: (B) The Moor's Last Sigh

54. In which year did Seamus Heaney win the Nobel Prize in Literature?

(A) 1985
(B) 1990
(C) 1995
(D) 2000

55. Which of the following sentence contains alliteration?

(A) The sky was dark and gloomy.
(B) She sells seashells by the seashore.
(C) I chatter over stony ways.
(D) He went galumphing back.

Correct Answer: (B) She sells seashells by the seashore.

56. The title of Anita Desai's novel Fire on the Mountain is taken from which novel?

(A) Mulk Raj Anand's Coolie
(B) William Golding's Lord of the Flies
(C) D.H. Lawrence's Rainbow
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B) William Golding's Lord of the Flies

57. Which literary club did Alexander Pope and Jonathan Swift co-found to satirize academic pedantry and false learning?

(A) The Kit-Cat Club
(B) The Hell-Fire Club
(C) The Scriblerus Club
(D) The Bluestocking Circle

Correct Answer: (C) The Scriblerus Club

58. Which poem is known as a "rhymed gazette"?

(A) "The Campaign"
(B) "The Waste Land"
(C) "London"
(D) "Chimney Sweepers"

Correct Answer: (A) "The Campaign"

59. What is the real name of the author who wrote under the pen name George Eliot?

(A) Mary Ann Evans
(B) Alicia Evans
(C) Emily Cartright
(D) Charlotte Mary

Correct Answer: (A) Mary Ann Evans

60. How many lines are there in a sonnet?

(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 22

Correct Answer: (B) 14

61. Romantic Age in England was greatly influenced by the following revolution:

(A) American Revolution
(B) Russian Revolution
(C) French Revolution
(D) Glorious Revolution

Correct Answer: (C) French Revolution

62. "I cannot rest from travel : I will drink / Life to the lees : All times I have enjoy'd / Greatly, have suffer'd greatly, both with those / That loved me, and alone, on shore"
In which poem of Tennyson do these lines appear?

(A) Crossing the Bar
(B) In Memoriam A.H.H.
(C) The Lady of Shalott
(D) Ulysses

Correct Answer: (D) Ulysses

63. Which George Orwell novel introduces the dystopian concept of "Big Brother" and "Thought Police"?

(A) Animal Farm
(B) Down and Out in Paris and London
(C) 1984
(D) Burmese Days

64. Which figure of speech is used in "How they clang, and clash, and roar! / On the bosom of the palpitating air!"

(A) Simile
(B) Metaphor
(C) Personification
(D) Onomatopoeia

Correct Answer: (D) Onomatopoeia

65. Which scientific method does Bacon primarily advocate for in his work Novum Organum?

(A) Syllogistic deduction
(B) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning
(C) Inductive reasoning
(D) Dialectical materialism

Correct Answer: (C) Inductive reasoning

66. With which famous architect did Ben Jonson frequently collaborate to produce elaborate court masques?

(A) Christopher Wren
(B) Inigo Jones
(C) John Webbe
(D) Nicholas Hawksmoor

Correct Answer: (B) Inigo Jones

67. Who kills Cornelia's son, Marcello, in a sudden fit of volatile rage in The White Devil?

(A) Vittoria
(B) Brachiano
(C) Lodovico
(D) Flamineo

Correct Answer: (D) Flamineo

68. Which sequence accurately tracks the publication of Arundhati Roy's major standalone non-fiction books/booklets from earliest to latest?

(A) The Doctor and the Saint -> War Talk -> Capitalism: A Ghost Story
(B) Capitalism: A Ghost Story -> War Talk -> The Doctor and the Saint
(C) War Talk -> Capitalism: A Ghost Story -> The Doctor and the Saint
(D) The Doctor and the Saint -> Capitalism: A Ghost Story -> War Talk

Correct Answer: (C) War Talk -> Capitalism: A Ghost Story -> The Doctor and the Saint

69. To whom did Virginia Woolf officially dedicate her 1928 novel Orlando : A Biography?

(A) Lytton Strachey
(B) Vita Sackville-West
(C) Vanessa Bell
(D) Leonard Woolf

Correct Answer: (B) Vita Sackville-West

70. In the text of Joseph Conrad's Heart of Darkness, what are the exact final words spoken by Kurtz before his death, as recorded verbatim by Marlow?

(A) "Oh, the absolute darkness!"
(B) "Intended! My Intended!"
(C) "The horror! The horror!"
(D) "Exterminate all the brutes!"

Correct Answer: (C) "The horror! The horror!"

71. Which of Robert Frost's poems was explicitly chosen and read aloud by him at the Presidential Inauguration of John F. Kennedy in 1961?

(A) The Road Not Taken
(B) The Gift Outright
(C) Birches
(D) Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening

Correct Answer: (B) The Gift Outright

72. What is the exact title of the third, central section of T.S. Eliot's 1922 modernist masterpiece The Waste Land?

(A) The Fire Sermon
(B) A Game of Chess
(C) Death by Water
(D) What the Thunder Said

Correct Answer: (A) The Fire Sermon

73. Which prominent English author and member of the Bloomsbury Group wrote the preface to Mulk Raj Anand's debut novel Untouchable (1935)?

(A) Virginia Woolf
(B) Aldous Huxley
(C) George Orwell
(D) E.M. Forster

Correct Answer: (D) E.M. Forster

74. In Lord Byron's Don Juan, Canto I, who is explicitly named as the mother of the protagonist Don Juan?

(A) Donna Julia
(B) Donna Inez
(C) Haidée
(D) Gulbeyaz

Correct Answer: (B) Donna Inez

75. Match the Poem (List I) with their exact opening lines (List II):
List I: I. The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock | II. Christabel | III. Palanquin Bearers | IV. The Canonization
List II: 1. "Let us go then, you and I," | 2. "'Tis the middle of night by the castle rock" | 3. "Lightly, O lightly we bear her along," | 4. "For God's sake hold your tongue"

(A) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
(B) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3
(C) I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4
(D) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3

Correct Answer: (A) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4

76. When John Milton writes in Paradise Lost, "No light, but rather darkness visible," what exact figure of speech is created by the immediate structural juxtaposition of contradictory terms?

(A) Alliteration
(B) Hyperbaton
(C) Hyperbole
(D) Oxymoron

Correct Answer: (D) Oxymoron

77. Which of Anita Desai's novels is partitioned structurally around the background of the 1947 Partition of India, focusing on the memories of Bim and Tara in Old Delhi?

(A) Voices in the City
(B) Clear Light of Day
(C) Baumgartner's Bombay
(D) The Zigzag Way

Correct Answer: (B) Clear Light of Day

78. What is the exact, literal subtitle given by Thomas Hardy to his 1891 novel Tess of the d'Urbervilles?

(A) A Story of a Modern Woman
(B) A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented
(C) The History of a Coquette
(D) A Tragedy of Modern Life

Correct Answer: (B) A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented

79. Under what specific pseudonym did Salman Rushdie live during his years in hiding following the 1989 fatwa, which he later used as the title of his 2012 memoir?

(A) Joseph Anton
(B) Joseph Crawling
(C) Anton Clifton
(D) Joseph Addison

Correct Answer: (A) Joseph Anton

80. Which of the following are not used as Determiners?

(A) Articles
(B) Numerals
(C) Demonstratives
(D) Prepositions

Correct Answer: (D) Prepositions

81. Which of the following proper nouns takes the definite article 'The'?

(A) January
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Monday
(D) United States of America

Correct Answer: (D) United States of America

82. Determiners are used to limit the semantic range or referential domain of:

(A) Verbs
(B) Adverbs
(C) Conjunctions
(D) Nouns

Correct Answer: (D) Nouns

83. English adjectives do not inflect for:

(A) Number
(B) Gender
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

84. Which of the following categories of auxiliaries can function both as lexical verbs and auxiliaries?

(A) Central modal auxiliaries
(B) Marginal modal auxiliaries
(C) Primary auxiliaries
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Primary auxiliaries

85. Tense or time reference is the function of which word class?

(A) Noun
(B) Verb
(C) Adjective
(D) Adverb

Correct Answer: (B) Verb

86. English has only _______ tenses.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Correct Answer: (B) 2

87. A prepositional phrase is traditionally considered a combination of two independent linguistic units:

(A) A preposition and a conjunction
(B) A preposition and an adjective
(C) A preposition and a verb (phrase)
(D) A preposition and a noun (phrase)

Correct Answer: (D) A preposition and a noun (phrase)

88. Which of the following sentences have an indirect object?

(A) The hunter killed a lion.
(B) His uncle sent him a mobile phone.
(C) My son has arranged a party today.
(D) It was known to everyone that he was a traitor.

Correct Answer: (B) His uncle sent him a mobile phone.

89. Which of the following is not a clause pattern?

(A) S-V-A
(B) S-V-O
(C) S-V-O-O
(D) S-O-O

Correct Answer: (D) S-O-O

90. The commonest structural difference between the main clauses and the subordinate clauses is the presence or absence of:

(A) The finite verb group
(B) The noun phrase
(C) The verb phrase
(D) The prepositional phrase

Correct Answer: (A) The finite verb group

91. Which of the following is not a subordinating element for a finite clause?

(A) If
(B) Because
(C) Although
(D) Must

Correct Answer: (D) Must

92. Which of the following sentences has an adverb of place?

(A) Amritsar is a holy city.
(B) Birds fly to wherever they can find food.
(C) We started the function before the minister arrived.
(D) If you drop the jar, it will break.

Correct Answer: (B) Birds fly to wherever they can find food.

93. Which of the following is a reason clause?

(A) Since we were short of funds, we decided to buy only half the plot.
(B) You may finish it how you like.
(C) Turn right when you reach the end of the road.
(D) I lived in hostel while I was a student.

Correct Answer: (A) Since we were short of funds, we decided to buy only half the plot.

94. Which of the following sentences has a verbless clause?

(A) Young and smart, he looked ready for action.
(B) Being late, she started at a run.
(C) When questioned, she denied being a terrorist.
(D) I asked if I could go.

Correct Answer: (A) Young and smart, he looked ready for action.

95. Which of the following sentences has a present tense with a future reference?

(A) I tell you I am leaving right now.
(B) The college opens in July.
(C) He could join army.
(D) Your mother tells me you have been to England.

Correct Answer: (B) The college opens in July.

96. Which of the following is not a simple past tense?

(A) Did you want to see me?
(B) Kiran said that she had too many commitments.
(C) If someone tried to blackmail, I would inform the police.
(D) The CBI is to look into the case.

Correct Answer: (D) The CBI is to look into the case.

97. In grammar, the manner in which the verbal action is regarded or perceived, like a repeated action, completed action or a continued action, is known as:

(A) Tense
(B) Modality
(C) Case
(D) Aspect

Correct Answer: (D) Aspect

98. Which of the following verbs is a stative verb?

(A) Make
(B) Read
(C) Desire
(D) Eat

Correct Answer: (C) Desire

99. Identify the past perfective sentence among the following:

(A) The house had remained empty for a long time before I bought it.
(B) I have just finished this painting.
(C) She has recently been to Tokyo.
(D) She has fractured her shoulder in the accident.

Correct Answer: (A) The house had remained empty for a long time before I bought it.

100. A word that typically functions as a modifier of a verb, or an adjective or an adverb or categories other than noun is known as:

(A) Adjective
(B) Subject
(C) Object
(D) Adverb

Correct Answer: (D) Adverb

101. Which of the following phrases does not have an adjective in the intensifying role?

(A) a real devil
(B) a sheer waste
(C) an utter fool
(D) a fond memory

Correct Answer: (D) a fond memory

102. Adjectives characteristically show the feature of:

(A) Tense
(B) Indefinite article
(C) Number
(D) Gradability

Correct Answer: (D) Gradability

103. Which of the following statement is not true regarding adjectives and adverbs?

(A) Adjectives and adverbs are two closely related but different word classes.
(B) Most adverbs are derived from adjectives by suffixation.
(C) Gradable adjectives and adverbs allow intensification and comparison.
(D) Adjectives and Adverbs constitute the most well-defined and homogeneous class.

Correct Answer: (D) Adjectives and Adverbs constitute the most well-defined and homogeneous class.

104. The auxiliary verb 'used to' indicate:

(A) Continuous or repeated action in the past
(B) Advice or recommendation
(C) Obligation or logical necessity
(D) Tentative conclusion

Correct Answer: (A) Continuous or repeated action in the past

105. In the sentence 'Could you lend me some money?', the modal 'could' signals:

(A) Permission
(B) Polite request
(C) Necessity
(D) Prediction

Correct Answer: (B) Polite request

106. Which of the following words does not come under the category of irregular verb?

(A) Grow
(B) Bind
(C) Create
(D) Drive

Correct Answer: (C) Create

107. The form of sentence in terms of question, assertion or request is realized in grammar by:

(A) Tense and aspect
(B) Mood and modality
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer: (B) Mood and modality

108. Which of the following is not a modal auxiliary?

(A) Might
(B) Shall
(C) Do
(D) Ought to

Correct Answer: (C) Do

109. Which of the following auxiliaries is generally dummy but important to make negative, interrogative and emphatic sentences?

(A) Do
(B) Have
(C) Be
(D) Can

Correct Answer: (A) Do

110. Which of following sentences has a past subjunctive mood?

(A) I rather wish it were true.
(B) It was true.
(C) It was not true.
(D) It will be true.

Correct Answer: (A) I rather wish it were true.

111. A misogynist is the one who:

(A) hates women.
(B) does not pursue the pleasures of flesh.
(C) believes in self-advancement
(D) turns thoughts outward.

Correct Answer: (A) hates women.

112. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called:

(A) Barometer
(B) Tripod
(C) Hygrometer
(D) Thermometer

Correct Answer: (A) Barometer

113. Give the synonym of 'stoical'.

(A) Heavy
(B) Clear
(C) Unemotional
(D) Happy

Correct Answer: (C) Unemotional

114. The antonym of 'stagnant' is:

(A) Clear
(B) Humid
(C) Mobile
(D) Safe

Correct Answer: (C) Mobile

115. Give the meaning of the idiom- break the ice:

(A) Achieve two goals with one action
(B) Feeling ill
(C) Fall sick
(D) Start a conversation

Correct Answer: (D) Start a conversation

116. Give the meaning of the idiom- The ball is in your court:

(A) It is your turn to decide or act
(B) Reveal a secret accidentally
(C) Every bad situation has something good
(D) Tease or joke someone

Correct Answer: (A) It is your turn to decide or act

117. Give the meaning of the idiom- Beat around the bush:

(A) Extremely happy
(B) Avoid the main topic
(C) Blaming or accusing the wrong person
(D) Don't judge by appearances

Correct Answer: (B) Avoid the main topic

Read the following passage and answer questions from 118-120:

In his classic short horror novel, The Turn of the Screw, Henry James tells a tale concerned with a curse of evil which has permeated the lives of two beautiful children, Miles, aged ten, and Flora, eight. James reveals how the supernatural forces of two ghosts of former servants, steward Peter Quint and governess, Miss Jessel channel through the consciousness of a new, neurotic governess who desperately tries to protect her charges. The ghosts appear to her as real people, but are invisible to the children and the housekeeper. Her efforts with Flora succeed only in arousing the girl's terror; in the final scene, moreover, Miles dies in her arms while the spectre she tries to obliterate stands looking through the window.

118. Who are the ghosts in the novel The Turn of the Screw?

(A) Flora and Miles
(B) Governess and the housekeeper
(C) Peter Quint and Miss Jessel
(D) Not mentioned in the text

Correct Answer: (C) Peter Quint and Miss Jessel

119. Whom does the new governess tries to protect?

(A) Flora
(B) Miles
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

120. What is the effect of the new governess's efforts on Flora?

(A) Flora kills her.
(B) She scares Flora more.
(C) Flora leaves the house.
(D) Flora drowns in the lake.

Correct Answer: (B) She scares Flora more.

121. The summary or abstract of a text with a specific number of words is called:

(A) essay.
(B) verse.
(C) paragraph.
(D) précis.

Correct Answer: (D) précis.

122. An official letter should be generally written using:

(A) slang and colloquial expressions.
(B) informal greetings.
(C) polite and formal language.
(D) many quotes and references

Correct Answer: (C) polite and formal language.

123. A text written to the principal requesting sick leave is an example of:

(A) a personal letter.
(B) an application.
(C) an advertisement.
(D) a précis.

Correct Answer: (B) an application.

124. The primary purpose of précis is:

(A) expand the original passage.
(B) reproduce the passage word by word.
(C) condense the passage while retaining the main ideas.
(D) add personal opinions.

Correct Answer: (C) condense the passage while retaining the main ideas.

125. A notice is generally written to:

(A) entertain the readers.
(B) give information to a specific group of people.
(C) express personal feelings.
(D) narrate a story.

Correct Answer: (B) give information to a specific group of people.

126. A notice must contain:

(A) Date, heading and issuing authority.
(B) a long introduction and conclusion.
(C) a bibliography.
(D) glossary.

Correct Answer: (A) Date, heading and issuing authority.

127. Which of the following is not a part of a business letter?

(A) Inside address
(B) Date
(C) Salutation
(D) Preface

Correct Answer: (D) Preface

128. Which of the following is important with regard to a complaint letter by a business head?

(A) The letters are written to settle the claims without losing the business.
(B) The letters often demonstrate threats, accusations and veiled hints.
(C) The end of such letters is often abrupt and unfavorable.
(D) The letters must never mention an apology to the client

Correct Answer: (A) The letters are written to settle the claims without losing the business.

129. An effective job application letter must include:

(A) An introductory sentence or paragraph which immediately attracts the attention of the employer.
(B) It must state whether one is applying in response to an advertisement or at somebody's suggestion or one's own initiative
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

130. Reference/recommendation letters are special letters asked from people like:

(A) Former employees
(B) Teachers
(C) Corporate leaders
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

131. The four main types of ________ are argumentative, expository, narrative and descriptive.

(A) Letter
(B) Précis
(C) Notice
(D) Essay

Correct Answer: (D) Essay

132. Which quality is most important in a message?

(A) Ambiguity
(B) Brevity
(C) Ornamentation
(D) Suspense

Correct Answer: (B) Brevity

133. A good system of note making generally follows:

(A) Random ordering
(B) Logical hierarchy
(C) Alphabetical ordering
(D) Chronological ordering in every case

Correct Answer: (B) Logical hierarchy

134. In note making, symbols and abbreviations are used mainly to:

(A) Make notes longer
(B) Save time and space
(C) Make the notes difficult to understand
(D) Replace the heading

Correct Answer: (B) Save time and space

135. A suitable title for notes should:

(A) Be as long as possible
(B) Reflect the central idea of the passage
(C) Contain every detail
(D) Reproduce the opening sentence

Correct Answer: (B) Reflect the central idea of the passage

136. Which method of teaching English is known as Berlitz method?

(A) Grammar Translation Method
(B) Audio-Lingual method
(C) Direct Method
(D) Traditional Grammar

Correct Answer: (C) Direct Method

137. Structural approach was in which of the following university?

(A) University of Michigan
(B) University of London
(C) University of California
(D) University of Pennsylvania

Correct Answer: (B) University of London

138. Which of the following are three sorts of situational syllabi under situational approach of teaching language?

(A) Structural, lexical and grammatical
(B) Functional, notional and procedural
(C) Phonological, semantic and morphological
(D) Concrete, mythical and limbo

Correct Answer: (D) Concrete, mythical and limbo

139. How many phases are included in planning of teaching?

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 4

Correct Answer: (C) 3

140. Morrison's general pattern for instructional process involves various sequential steps. Which of the following is first step?

(A) Learning outcomes
(B) General aids
(C) Pretest
(D) Testing the results of instruction

Correct Answer: (C) Pretest

141. Who said, "Careful reflections on past experiences result in teacher growth and more effective planning and teaching."?

(A) Donald Schön
(B) John Dewey
(C) Donald Cruickshank
(D) Philip Jackson

Correct Answer: (C) Donald Cruickshank

142. Which of the following is a multi-tiered model of classifying thinking, according to six cognitive levels of complexity?

(A) Gagné's Nine Events of Instruction
(B) Bloom's Taxonomy
(C) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
(D) Morrison's Instructional Model

Correct Answer: (B) Bloom's Taxonomy

143. What is the full form of ELPT?

(A) English Language Proficiency Test
(B) English Learning Performance Test
(C) English Language Pedagogy Test
(D) English Language Practice Test

Correct Answer: (A) English Language Proficiency Test

144. Which test tries to find out what exactly a learner has learnt in a given teaching context?

(A) Proficiency Test
(B) Aptitude Test
(C) Achievement Test
(D) Diagnostic Test

Correct Answer: (C) Achievement Test

145. Which type of validity checks whether the content of the test questions is accurate and appropriate?

(A) Construct Validity
(B) Criterion-related Validity
(C) Content Validity
(D) Predictive Validity

Correct Answer: (C) Content Validity

146. Skimming and scanning are different types of sub-skills used in which of the following?

(A) Speaking
(B) Listening
(C) Reading
(D) Writing

Correct Answer: (C) Reading

147. Which of the following approaches is used in teaching grammar as a rule-discovery path?

(A) Deductive Approach
(B) Inductive Approach
(C) Structural Approach
(D) Translation Approach

Correct Answer: (B) Inductive Approach

148. Who stated that "Silent reading inculcates love for reading and is pleasurable and it gives the pupils a feeling of power and achievement"?

(A) A.W. Frisby
(B) W.S. Tomkinson
(C) C.H. Handschin
(D) Morrison

Correct Answer: (A) A.W. Frisby

149. In revised Bloom's Taxonomy, the basic elements that students must know to be acquainted with a discipline or solve problems in it, is the part of which type of knowledge?

(A) Conceptual Knowledge
(B) Procedural Knowledge
(C) Factual Knowledge
(D) Metacognitive Knowledge

Correct Answer: (C) Factual Knowledge

150. Who said, "Prose is words in their best form and poetry is the best of the words in their best form"?

(A) William Wordsworth
(B) Matthew Arnold
(C) S.T. Coleridge
(D) T.S. Eliot

Correct Answer: (C) S.T. Coleridge

ਆਰ ਐਮ ਪੀ ਆਈ ਨੇ ਨਰਿੰਦਰ ਮੋਦੀ, ਅਮਿਤ ਸ਼ਾਹ ਅਤੇ ਗਿਆਨੇਸ਼ ਕੁਮਾਰ ਦੇ ਪੁਤਲੇ ਫੂਕੇ

*ਆਰ ਐਮ ਪੀ ਆਈ ਨੇ ਨਰਿੰਦਰ ਮੋਦੀ, ਅਮਿਤ ਸ਼ਾਹ ਅਤੇ ਗਿਆਨੇਸ਼ ਕੁਮਾਰ ਦੇ ਪੁਤਲੇ ਫੂਕੇ*

*ਦੇਸ਼ ਭਗਤਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਕੁਰਬਾਨੀਆਂ ਨਾਲ ਪ੍ਰਾਪਤ ਕੀਤੀ ਆਜ਼ਾਦੀ ਅਤੇ ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਦੀ ਰਾਖੀ ਕਰਾਂਗੇ*

ਨਵਾਂ ਸ਼ਹਿਰ 26 ਸਤੰਬਰ ( ) ਭਾਰਤੀ ਇਨਕਲਾਬੀ ਮਾਰਕਸਵਾਦੀ ਪਾਰਟੀ (ਆਰ ਐਮ ਪੀ ਆਈ) ਨੇ 'ਮੁਖ ਚੋਣ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ' ਗਿਆਨੇਸ਼ ਕੁਮਾਰ ਦੇ ਅਸਤੀਫ਼ੇ ਦੀ ਮੰਗ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ ਜੰਤਰ-ਮੰਤਰ, ਨਵੀਂ ਦਿੱਲੀ ਵਿਖੇ ਸ਼ਾਂਤਮਈ ਮੁਜ਼ਾਹਰਾ ਕਰ ਰਹੇ ਸਿਵਲ ਸੁਸਾਇਟੀ ਦੇ ਮੈਂਬਰ ਅਤੇ ਸਾਥੀ ਦੀਪਾਂਕਰ ਭੱਟਾਚਾਰੀਆ, ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ੋਤਮ ਸ਼ਰਮਾ, ਨੇਹਾ ਬੋਰਾ, ਜੋਗਿੰਦਰ ਯਾਦਵ, ਸੀਨੀਅਰ ਵਕੀਲ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਾਂਤ ਭੂਸ਼ਨ ਸਮੇਤ ਹੋਰ ਨਾਮਵਰ ਖੱਬੇ ਪੱਖੀ ਆਗੂਆਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਨਾਜਾਇਜ਼ ਗ੍ਰਿਫਤਾਰੀਆਂ ਖਿਲਾਫ ਰੋਸ ਪ੍ਰਗਟ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਅਤੇ ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਦੀ ਲੁੱਟ ਕਰਨ ਵਾਲੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਚੋਣ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ ਦੇ ਅਸਤੀਫੇ ਦੀ ਮੰਗ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ ਪ੍ਰਧਾਨ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਨਰਿੰਦਰ ਮੋਦੀ ਗ੍ਰਹਿ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਅਮਿਤ ਸ਼ਾਹ ਅਤੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਚੋਣ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ ਗਿਆਨੇਸ਼ ਕੁਮਾਰ ਦੇ ਪੁਤਲੇ ਫੂਕੇ ਗਏ। ਆਗੂਆਂ ਨੇ ਕਿਹਾ ਕਿ ਦੇਸ਼ ਭਗਤਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਕੁਰਬਾਨੀਆਂ ਸਦਕਾ ਮਿਲੀ ਦੇਸ਼ ਦੀ ਆਜ਼ਾਦੀ ਅਤੇ ਸੰਵਿਧਾਨ ਦੁਆਰਾ ਕਾਇਮ ਕੀਤੇ ਗਏ ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਦੀ ਰਾਖੀ ਹਰ ਹਾਲਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਕੀਤੀ ਜਾਵੇਗੀ।

ਇਸ ਸਮੇਂ ਕੁਲਦੀਪ ਸਿੰਘ ਦੌੜਕਾ, ਸਤਨਾਮ ਸਿੰਘ ਸੁੱਜੋਂ, ਕੁਲਵਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਅਟਵਾਲ, ਵਿਜੇ ਕੁਮਾਰ, ਸੁਰਿੰਦਰ ਭੱਟੀ, ਸੂਬੇਦਾਰ ਮੇਜਰ ਸਿੰਘ, ਸੋਹਣ ਲਾਲ ਭੱਟੀ, ਗੁਰਨਾਮ ਸਿੰਘ ਭਾਨਮਜਾਰਾ, ਦਿਲਬਾਗ ਸਿੰਘ ਨਾਈਮਜਾਰਾ, ਰਣਜੀਤ ਗੁਜਰਪੁਰ, ਬਲਬੀਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਭੀਣ, ਪੂਜਨ ਪਾਸਵਾਨ, ਮਨਦੀਪ ਸਿੰਘ ਮੁਬਾਰਕਪੁਰ, ਸਰੂਪ ਸਿੰਘ ਔੜ, ਗੁਰਮੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਭੀਣ, ਤੋਤਾ ਮਹਾਲੋਂ ਆਦਿ ਹਾਜ਼ਰ ਸਨ।

OPS NEW NOTIFICATION: ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਅਹਿਮ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਜਾਰੀ: ਪੁਰਾਣੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਦੇ ਸਿਧਾਂਤਾਂ 'ਤੇ ਗਾਰੰਟੀਸ਼ੁਦਾ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਦੀ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟਤਾ/ਲਈ ਹੋਰ ਸਮਾਂ

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਅਹਿਮ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਜਾਰੀ: ਪੁਰਾਣੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਦੇ ਸਿਧਾਂਤਾਂ 'ਤੇ ਗਾਰੰਟੀਸ਼ੁਦਾ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਦੀ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟਤਾ, ਸਮੀਖਿਆ ਲਈ ਮੰਗਿਆ 4 ਮਹੀਨੇ ਦਾ ਹੋਰ ਸਮਾਂ

ਮਿਤੀ: 25 ਸਤੰਬਰ 2026 | ਸਥਾਨ: ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ

ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ: ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੇ ਵਿੱਤ ਵਿਭਾਗ (ਵਿੱਤ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਪਾਲਿਸੀ ਅਤੇ ਤਾਲਮੇਲ ਸ਼ਾਖਾ) ਵੱਲੋਂ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ ਦੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ ਇੱਕ ਅਹਿਮ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ। ਇਸ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਰਾਹੀਂ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੇ ਪੁਰਾਣੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ (OPS) ਅਤੇ ਮੌਜੂਦਾ ਵਿਵਸਥਾ ਨੂੰ ਲੈ ਕੇ ਆਪਣਾ ਸਟੈਂਡ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੈ।

ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਅੰਸ਼:

OPS ਦੇ ਸਿਧਾਂਤਾਂ 'ਤੇ ਗਾਰੰਟੀ: ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੇ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੈ ਕਿ ਉਹਨਾਂ ਦਾ ਮਨੋਰਥ ਪੁਰਾਣੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ (Old Pension Scheme) ਦੇ ਸਿਧਾਂਤਾਂ ਦੇ ਆਧਾਰ 'ਤੇ ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਗਾਰੰਟੀਸ਼ੁਦਾ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਦੇਣਾ ਹੈ।
ਕੰਟਰੀਬਿਊਟਰੀ ਸਰੂਪ ਰਹੇਗਾ ਜਾਰੀ: ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੇ ਨਾਲ ਹੀ ਇਹ ਵੀ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੈ ਕਿ ਇਸ ਸਕੀਮ ਦਾ ਸਰੂਪ "ਡਿਫਾਈਨਡ ਕੰਟਰੀਬਿਊਟਰੀ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ" (Defined Contributory Pension Scheme) ਵਾਲਾ ਹੀ ਰਹੇਗਾ।
4 ਮਹੀਨਿਆਂ ਦਾ ਵਾਧੂ ਸਮਾਂ: ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦੇ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਾਸਕੀ ਸੰਭਾਵਨਾਵਾਂ, ਵਿੱਤੀ ਪ੍ਰਭਾਵਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਅਮਲੀ ਢਾਂਚੇ ਦੀ ਵਿਆਪਕ ਸਮੀਖਿਆ ਲਈ ਚਾਰ ਮਹੀਨਿਆਂ ਦਾ ਹੋਰ ਸਮਾਂ ਵਧਾ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ।

ਜਾਰੀ ਹੁਕਮਾਂ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ, ਇਹ ਕਦਮ ਕੇਂਦਰ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੀ ਤਾਜ਼ਾ ਯੂਨੀਫਾਈਡ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਸਕੀਮ (UPS) ਸਮੇਤ ਹਾਲੀਆ ਘਟਨਾਕ੍ਰਮਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਦੂਜੇ ਰਾਜਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਅਪਣਾਏ ਜਾ ਰਹੇ ਵਧੀਆ ਮਾਡਲਾਂ ਦੀ ਘੋਖ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਚੁੱਕਿਆ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ, ਤਾਂ ਜੋ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਰਾਜ ਲਈ ਇੱਕ ਬਿਹਤਰ ਬਦਲਵਾਂ ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨ ਮਾਡਲ ਸਿਫਾਰਸ਼ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾ ਸਕੇ।

ਇਹ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਵਧੀਕ ਮੁੱਖ ਸਕੱਤਰ (ਵਿੱਤ) ਸ਼੍ਰੀ ਆਲੋਕ ਸ਼ੇਖਰ (IAS) ਦੇ ਦਸਤਖ਼ਤਾਂ ਹੇਠ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ। ਇਸ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਦੀ ਕਾਪੀ ਕੈਬਨਿਟ ਸਬ-ਕਮੇਟੀ ਦੇ ਮੈਂਬਰਾਂ—ਕੈਬਨਿਟ ਮੰਤਰੀ ਹਰਪਾਲ ਸਿੰਘ ਚੀਮਾ, ਅਮਨ ਅਰੋੜਾ ਅਤੇ ਹਰਜੋਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਬੈਂਸ ਸਮੇਤ ਸਾਰੇ ਵਿਭਾਗੀ ਮੁਖੀਆਂ ਅਤੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਤੇ ਹਰਿਆਣਾ ਹਾਈ ਕੋਰਟ ਨੂੰ ਸੂਚਨਾ ਅਤੇ ਅਗਲੇਰੀ ਕਾਰਵਾਈ ਹਿੱਤ ਭੇਜ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ।

TEACHER TRANSFER 2026: ਅਧਿਆਪਕਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਬਦਲੀਆਂ ਲਈ ਸਪੈਸ਼ਲ ਮੌਕਾ, ਕਰੋ ਅਪਲਾਈ

DA TO PENSIONER: ਪੈਨਸ਼ਨਰਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਵੀ ਡੀਏ, ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਜਾਰੀ

DA 8% LETTER: ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ ਨੂੰ 8% ਡੀਏ ਸਬੰਧੀ ਨੋਟੀਫਿਕੇਸ਼ਨ ਜਾਰੀ

Holiday Declared: 23 ਸਤੰਬਰ ਨੂੰ ਛੁੱਟੀ, ਡਿਪਟੀ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਹੁਕਮ ਜਾਰੀ

BIOLOGY LECTURER RECRUITMENT QUESTION PAPER ANSWER KEY 2026

1. Which one of the following options correctly represents the distinction between primary and secondary growth in plants ?

(A) Both primary and secondary growth result in an increase in the height of plant.
(B) Primary growth causes increase in girth, while secondary growth causes increase in height of plant.
(C) Primary growth causes increase in height, while secondary growth causes increase in girth of plant.
(D) Increase in height caused by lateral meristem while girth increase is caused by apical meristem.

Answer: (C) Primary growth causes increase in height, while secondary growth causes increase in girth of plant.

2. Which among the following options shows all organisms belonging to Kingdom Protista?

(A) Amoeba, Rhizopus, Euglena, Mucor and Plasmodium.
(B) Amoeba, Paramecium, E. coli, Trypanosoma and Plasmodium.
(C) Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, Trypanosoma and Plasmodium.
(D) Amoeba, Paramecium, Nostoc, Anabaena and Plasmodium.

Answer: (C) Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, Trypanosoma and Plasmodium.

3. Which one of the following is the outermost layer of a young dicot stem?

(A) Pericycle
(B) Endodermis
(C) Epidermis
(D) Cortex

Answer: (C) Epidermis

4. Which one of the following features about anatomy of a typical monocot root is correct?

(A) Presence of radial vascular bundles
(B) Pericycle is absent
(C) Absence of a distinct, continuous layer of endodermis
(D) Absence of a large, well-developed pith

Answer: (A) Presence of radial vascular bundles

5. Which one among the following options gives one of the key features of binding of oxygen to haemoglobin?

(A) Oxygen binding to haemoglobin is a reversible process.
(B) Oxygen binding to haemoglobin is irreversible.
(C) One molecule of haemoglobin binds one oxygen molecule.
(D) One molecule of haemoglobin binds two oxygen molecules.

Answer: (A) Oxygen binding to haemoglobin is a reversible process.

6. Which ones among the following are the most abundant type of white blood cells in human blood?

(A) Monocytes
(B) Basophils
(C) Eosinophils
(D) Neutrophils

Answer: (D) Neutrophils

7. Which one of the following types of fruits is present in Poaceae family?

(A) Pome
(B) Drupe
(C) Capsule
(D) Caryopsis

Answer: (D) Caryopsis

8. The human stomach produces key enzymes to break down food. Which one of the following enzymes in the stomach digests proteins and breaks large protein chains down into smaller peptide fragments?

(A) Trypsin
(B) Pepsin
(C) Sucrase
(D) Gelatinase

Answer: (B) Pepsin

9. The small intestine is very good at absorbing nutrients from food. Which one of the following features best explain its function?

(A) It is very long.
(B) It has a huge surface area due to folds, villi and microvilli.
(C) It has a rich blood supply that carries away nutrients fast.
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these

10. Which one of the following statements regarding 'Locomotion and movement' is correct?

(A) Movement is always a voluntary choice while locomotion is involuntary.
(B) Movement involves the whole body while locomotion involves only one or two parts.
(C) Locomotion occurs in animals only while movement occurs only in plants.
(D) Movement does not change the overall location of the body. Locomotion shifts the whole body to a new location.

Answer: (D) Movement does not change the overall location of the body. Locomotion shifts the whole body to a new location.

11. Which ones of the following blood groups in the ABO system of blood grouping are the universal donor and universal recipient blood groups which are generally considered for Blood transfusion?

(A) 'AB' universal donor and 'O' universal recipient
(B) 'A' universal donor and 'O' universal recipient
(C) 'O' universal donor and 'AB' universal recipient
(D) 'B' universal donor and 'A' universal recipient

Answer: (C) 'O' universal donor and 'AB' universal recipient

12. Which one among the following is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by humans?

(A) Creatinine
(B) Urea
(C) Ammonia
(D) Uric acid

Answer: (B) Urea

13. Which one among the following responses is expected in case of significant increase in the osmolarity of blood vessels ?

(A) Increase in both ADH secretion and water reabsorption
(B) Decrease in ADH secretion and increase in urine volume
(C) Decrease in thirst and increase in urine concentration
(D) Increase in ANF secretion

Answer: (A) Increase in both ADH secretion and water reabsorption

14. Which one among the following is an example of a disease caused by a microscopic single-celled protozoan parasite of the genus Plasmodium?

(A) Pneumonia
(B) Typhoid
(C) Filariasis
(D) Malaria

Answer: (D) Malaria

15. Which one among the following statements about 'Microbial fermentation' best explains its use in household food preparation?

(A) This process kills all bacteria and sterilizes the food.
(B) It promotes growth of pathogenic bacteria.
(C) Microbial fermentation has the potential to enhance/improve the flavour, texture and digestibility of food.
(D) Microbial fermentation has the potential to convert all types of nutrients of the food into proteins.

Answer: (C) Microbial fermentation has the potential to enhance/improve the flavour, texture and digestibility of food.

16. Which one among the following statements about 'Microbial biogas production' is correct?

(A) Microbial biogas production requires continuous oxygen supply.
(B) Microbial biogas production produces only non-combustible gases.
(C) Microbial biogas production converts organic waste into usable biogas and nutrient-rich organic fertilizer.
(D) Microbial biogas production causes buildup of organic waste.

Answer: (C) Microbial biogas production converts organic waste into usable biogas and nutrient-rich organic fertilizer.

17. Bt cotton is a transgenic crop carrying Bt gene which is permanently integrated into the nuclear DNA of host plant cells. Which one of the following options of bacterial species serves as the natural source of Bt gene?

(A) Rhizobium alamii
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Bacillus thermolactis

Answer: (B) Bacillus thuringiensis

18. Which one among the following is not an example of 'Transgenic animals'?

(A) Oncomouse
(B) Dolly the Sheep
(C) Antithrombin Goats
(D) Rosie the Cow

Answer: (B) Dolly the Sheep

19. Which one among the following can be considered as a warning sign of drug abuse in teens ?

(A) Sudden improvement in academic performance.
(B) Consistency in sleep pattern.
(C) Sudden behavioural changes and withdrawal from family and long-time friends.
(D) Improved social interactions and relationships.

Answer: (C) Sudden behavioural changes and withdrawal from family and long-time friends.

20. Which one among the following processes is commonly used in 'Recombinant DNA Technology' for introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cells ?

(A) Translocation
(B) Transduction
(C) Transpiration
(D) Transformation

Answer: (D) Transformation

21. Agarose gel electrophoresis is used for separation of different DNA fragments. Which one of the following criteria is used by this technique to separate DNA fragments?

(A) DNA fragments are separated on the basis of size.
(B) Large fragments move faster than smaller fragments.
(C) Phosphorus content of DNA fragments.
(D) Protein content associated with DNA fragments.

Answer: (A) DNA fragments are separated on the basis of size.

22. Which one among the following is known as the "Master gland" because it releases hormones that regulate several other endocrine glands?

(A) Pituitary gland
(B) Pineal gland
(C) Thyroid gland
(D) Adrenal gland

Answer: (A) Pituitary gland

23. Which one among the following applications of Recombinant DNA technology is ethically acceptable?

(A) Production of biological weapons by introducing disease causing gene into common bacteria or viruses.
(B) Synthesizing human growth hormone (hGH) via rDNA to artificially boost athletic performance.
(C) Production of human insulin in microorganisms like E. coli or yeast
(D) Changing reproductive cells (sperm or eggs) to pass permanent traits to future generations without their consent.

Answer: (C) Production of human insulin in microorganisms like E. coli or yeast

24. Which one among the following is a pair of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria commonly used as biofertilizers?

(A) Azotobacter and Pseudomonas
(B) Azospirillum and Bacillus
(C) Nostoc and Aspergillus
(D) Anabaena and Nostoc

Answer: (D) Anabaena and Nostoc

25. Which one among the following represents the basic and complete structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

(A) Nerve fibre
(B) Axon
(C) Neuron
(D) Dendrite

Answer: (C) Neuron

26. Which one of the following statements about mitochondria is incorrect?

(A) Mitochondria contribute to heredity.
(B) Mitochondria are involved in ATP synthesis.
(C) Mitochondria have single stranded circular DNA.
(D) Cristae are the folds in inner membrane of mitochondria.

Answer: (C) Mitochondria have single stranded circular DNA.

27. Which one of the following represent nature of termini of the lipid molecules in the plasma membrane ?

(A) Hydrophilic
(B) Hydrophobic
(C) Both hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(D) Neutral

Answer: (C) Both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

28. Who among the following proposed the Cell theory?

(A) Schleiden and Hooke in 1849-1850
(B) Schleiden and Schwann in 1838-1839
(C) Schwann and Virchow in 1850
(D) Robert Hooke in 1839

Answer: (B) Schleiden and Schwann in 1838-1839

29. Which ones of the following statements are correct?
(i) Mesosomes are present in only prokaryotic cells.
(ii) Mesosomes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(iii) Bacterial ribosomes are 80S type and consist of two subunits with larger one is 50S and smaller one is 30S.
(iv) Bacterial ribosomes are 70S type and consist of two subunits with larger one is 50S and smaller one is 30S.

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (B) (i) and (iv)

30. Which one of the following statements about chloroplasts is incorrect?

(A) Chloroplasts have their own DNA and protein synthesis apparatus.
(B) Because of their own DNA and protein synthesis capability, they do not require any proteins coded by nuclear DNA to perform their functions.
(C) They cannot survive outside host cell.
(D) Chlorophyll a is the primary photosynthetic pigment which is present in chloroplasts of all types of plants.

Answer: (B) Because of their own DNA and protein synthesis capability, they do not require any proteins coded by nuclear DNA to perform their functions.

31. Which ones of the following statements about carbohydrates are correct?
(i) Monosaccharides are simple sugars or monomers.
(ii) Sucrose and raffinose are examples of disaccharides.
(iii) Cellulose and xylan are examples of homopolysachharides.
(iv) Acetyl glucosamine is an important derivative of glucose and is a constituent of plant cell walls.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii)

32. Which one of the following is an example of Stearic acid ?

(A) Unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(B) Saturated fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms.
(C) Unsaturated fatty acid which is not present in animal fats.
(D) Saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

Answer: (D) Saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

33. In enzyme kinetics, which one of the following statements about Michaelis constant (KM) is True?

(A) KM for a given enzyme is equal to substrate concentration at maximum reaction velocity.
(B) KM for a given enzyme is equal to substrate concentration at half of maximum reaction velocity.
(C) KM for a given enzyme is equal to substrate concentration at initial reaction velocity.
(D) KM for a given enzyme is dependent upon concentration of substrate.

Answer: (B) KM for a given enzyme is equal to substrate concentration at half of maximum reaction velocity.

34. Drought stress triggers specific adaptive responses in plants. One of the first responses is production of a hormone which causes guard cells to lose potassium and close stomatal pores. From the given options below, identify the hormone which plays significant role in drought stress in plants.

(A) Indole acetic acid
(B) Indole butyric acid
(C) Kinetin
(D) Abscisic acid

Answer: (D) Abscisic acid

35. Which one of the following statements about DNA is incorrect?

(A) Number of purines is always equal to number of pyrimidines.
(B) DNA molecule is composed of two chains of nucleotides spiral around each other.
(C) The two strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds.
(D) The -sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate- backbone of each strand is located on the outside of the molecule and two sets of bases are projecting toward the center.

Answer: (C) The two strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds.

36. Who among the following demonstrated for the first time that Enzymes are Proteins ?

(A) Louis Pasteur (1890)
(B) John Northrop (1924)
(C) Hans Büchner (1920)
(D) James Sumner (1926)

Answer: (D) James Sumner (1926)

37. The Spindle Assembly Checkpoint (SAC) operates at the transition between metaphase and anaphase and arrests the cell cycle at metaphase if a chromosome does not align properly at metaphase because it could not attach to appropriate spindle fibre. Which one of the following proteins mediates the SAC ?

(A) Mad2
(B) Separase
(C) Kinase
(D) Cyclase

Answer: (A) Mad2

38. Which ones of the following statements about sporophytes of flowering plants are correct?
(i) Dominant phase of flowering plant life cycle is sporophyte.
(ii) Sporophytes are mostly haploid.
(iii) Meiosis in plants result in formation of spores.
(iv) Spores germinate to produce a new sporophyte.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii)

39. Which one of the following statements about flowers are correct?
(i) Flowers are modified shoots.
(ii) Petals are modified leaves.
(iii) The flower stalk is a pedicel where the other flower parts are attached.
(iv) A stamen has two parts, the filament (its stalk) and the anther which is composed of haploid cells.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (A) (i) and (ii)

40. Which one among the following statements regarding 'General characteristics of Phylum Chordata' is not true?

(A) Their body is bilaterally symmetrical.
(B) They generally have a closed circulatory system with a ventral heart.
(C) They are characterized by having Dorsal and solid nerve cord.
(D) They possess a rear body extension reaching past the anus (post-anal tail) at some point during their life cycle.

Answer: (C) They are characterized by having Dorsal and solid nerve cord.

41. Which ones of the following statements about cell membranes are correct?
(i) Cell membranes are permeable to water.
(ii) Polar substances can pass freely through the cell membranes.
(iii) Aquaporins are specialized proteins that facilitate fast movement of water through hydrophilic lipid layer.
(iv) Any type of injury increases membrane permeability.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer: (D) (i) and (iv) only

42. Which one of the following statements about the process of simple diffusion is true?

(A) Diffusion can occur for any type of molecules
(B) The movement is across concentration gradient
(C) ATP supplies energy for diffusion to occur
(D) Diffusion requires involvement of transmembrane proteins

Answer: (B) The movement is across concentration gradient

43. Which one among the following options is 'the location in eukaryotic cells where Kreb cycle takes place'?

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Vacuoles
(D) Golgi bodies

Answer: (A) Mitochondria

44. In case of human males, spermatogenesis results in the production of four spermatozoa (mature sperm cells) through the process of meiosis. Which one of the following types of cells take part in Meiosis I of spermatogenesis?

(A) Primary spermatocytes
(B) Secondary spermatocytes
(C) Sertoli cells
(D) Leydig cells

Answer: (A) Primary spermatocytes

45. Match the following with regard to Photosystems, PSI and PSII and choose the correct option:
Group-I:
U. Its Photocentre is P700
V. It receives electrons from photolytic reaction
X. Chlorophyll to carotenoid ratio is high
Y. It is involved in evolution of oxygen
Group-II:
i. Photosystem I
ii. Photosystem II

(A) U-i, V-ii, X-ii, Y-i
(B) U-ii, V-ii, X-i, Y-i
(C) U-i, V-i, X-ii, Y-ii
(D) U-i, V-ii, X-i, Y-ii

Answer: (D) U-i, V-ii, X-i, Y-ii

46. Calvin cycle is also known as PCR cycle. Which of the following stands for PCR with respect to Calvin cycle?

(A) Photosynthetic Chain Reaction
(B) Photosynthetic Carboxylation Reduction
(C) Photosynthetic Carbon Reduction
(D) Photosynthetic Carbon Resource

Answer: (C) Photosynthetic Carbon Reduction

47. Which one of the following statements is not true about CAM plants?

(A) In CAM plants, Phase 1 of photosynthesis occurs in dark while phase 2 operates in the presence of light.
(B) Parenchyma cells in CAM plants are small and have small vacuoles.
(C) Initial carbon fixation in CAM plants is similar to that of C4 plants.
(D) Photosynthesis in CAM plants occurs both in leaves and stems.

Answer: (B) Parenchyma cells in CAM plants are small and have small vacuoles.

48. Who among the following described 'Photorespiration' for the first time?

(A) Decker and Tio (1959) in tobacco
(B) Emerson (1939) in barley
(C) Emerson and Arnold (1932) in tobacco
(D) Park and Pon (1961) in barley

Answer: (A) Decker and Tio (1959) in tobacco

49. Which of the following statements is not true about Glycolysis?

(A) Glycolysis involves degradation of a glucose molecule in a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions to produce two molecules of the 3C compound 'pyruvate'
(B) Glycolysis occurs in two phases.
(C) The first phase is the preparatory phase in which one molecule of glucose is catabolized to 2 molecules of Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate in 5 steps.
(D) In glycolysis, there is net yield of three ATP molecules per molecule of glucose converted to pyruvate.

Answer: (D) In glycolysis, there is net yield of three ATP molecules per molecule of glucose converted to pyruvate.

50. Which one of the following is the correct definition of Test cross ?

(A) Test cross is a cross between a genetically unknown individual to an individual showing fully recessive phenotype.
(B) Test cross is a cross between an F1 hybrid to any one of its parents.
(C) Test cross is a cross between individuals showing contrasting traits.
(D) Test cross is a cross between individuals showing same trait to have pure lines.

Answer: (A) Test cross is a cross between a genetically unknown individual to an individual showing fully recessive phenotype.

51. Photoperiodism was studied in detail while working on a mutant variety of tobacco called 'Maryland Mammoth'. Who among the following did these first studies ?

(A) Garner and Allard (1920)
(B) Krebs (1922)
(C) Hillman (1919)
(D) Lang (1930)

Answer: (A) Garner and Allard (1920)

52. Which one pair among the following show examples of natural cytokinins ?

(A) Zeatin and Kinetin
(B) Kinetin and Isopentenyl adenine
(C) Zeatin and Benzyl amino purine
(D) Zeatin and Isopentenyl adenine

Answer: (D) Zeatin and Isopentenyl adenine

53. Which one among the following types of mutations has resulted in the production of delicious apple variety?

(A) Chemically induced mutation
(B) Spontaneous mutation in a sex cell
(C) Spontaneous mutation in a somatic cell
(D) Radiation induced mutation

Answer: (C) Spontaneous mutation in a somatic cell

54. Which one of the following statements about Translation is not true?

(A) Translation is a complex process and occurs on ribosomes.
(B) Translation involves three types of RNAs for each mRNA, 8-10 types of rRNAs and 100-150 types of tRNAs.
(C) Translation process requires at least 20 amino acid-activating enzymes known as aminoacyl tRNA synthetases.
(D) Translation process requires at least 9 soluble proteins involved in polypeptide chain initiation, elongation and termination.

Answer: (B) Translation involves three types of RNAs for each mRNA, 8-10 types of rRNAs and 100-150 types of tRNAs.

55. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides. Each nucleotide is composed of (1) a phosphate group, (2) deoxyribose (a five-carbon sugar), and (3) a cyclic nitrogen containing compound called a base. There are four different bases in DNA that fall into two groups, purines and pyrimidines. Which one of the following statements is true for these nitrogen bases ?

(A) Purines are single ring bases and examples are adenine and thymine.
(B) Pyrimidines are double ring bases and examples are cytosine and guanine.
(C) Purines are double ring bases and examples are adenine and thymine.
(D) Pyrimidines are single ring bases and examples are cytosine and thymine.

Answer: (D) Pyrimidines are single ring bases and examples are cytosine and thymine.

56. Which one of the following statements about Watson and Crick DNA Double Helix is not true ?

(A) DNA exists as a double helix in which two polynucleotide chains are coiled about one another in a spiral.
(B) The two polynucleotide chains are held together in their helical configuration by hydrogen bonding between bases in opposite strands.
(C) The base pairing is specific such that adenine pairs with guanine and cytosine pairs with thymine.
(D) Because of specific base pairing, once the sequence of nucleotides in one strand of DNA is known, the sequence of nucleotides in the other strand also becomes known.

Answer: (C) The base pairing is specific such that adenine pairs with guanine and cytosine pairs with thymine.

57. Who among the following tested and proved Watson and Crick's semiconservative DNA replication model?

(A) Meselson and Stahl, 1958
(B) Wilkins and Franklin, 1948
(C) Hershey and Chase, 1952
(D) Cairns and Franklin, 1953

Answer: (A) Meselson and Stahl, 1958

58. Which one of the following statements about 'E. coli RNA polymerase' is not true?

(A) It catalyzes transcription of DNA into RNA in Escherichia coli.
(B) It consists of 6 polypeptides, two α and one each of β, β', σ and ω.
(C) The complete RNA polymerase molecule with 6 polypeptides is called the "holoenzyme".
(D) The two alpha polypeptides are involved in initiation of transcription.

Answer: (D) The two alpha polypeptides are involved in initiation of transcription.

59. Which one among the following statements about 'Deforestation' is true?

(A) Deforestation causes increased genetic diversity in all species.
(B) Deforestation causes loss of habitat for a large number of species (plants, animals and microbes) resulting in species displacement and risk of extinction.
(C) Deforestation in hilly areas causes soil stability.
(D) Deforestation causes increase in carbon sequestration by soil.

Answer: (B) Deforestation causes loss of habitat for a large number of species (plants, animals and microbes) resulting in species displacement and risk of extinction.

60. Which one of the following represents "Frameshift type of mutation"?

(A) Addition or deletion of 3 or multiples of 3 base pairs in a gene sequence.
(B) Change of AT base pair with GC base pair in a gene sequence.
(C) Change of GC base pair with AT and vice-versa.
(D) Addition or deletion of a single or two base pair/s in a gene sequence.

Answer: (D) Addition or deletion of a single or two base pair/s in a gene sequence.

61. Which one of the following statements regarding 'XX-XY type mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila' is not true?

(A) Ratio of number of sex chromosome "X" and number of sets of autosomes (A) determine sex of the organism.
(B) Normal males have X/A ratio 0.5 and females have X/A ratio 1.0.
(C) If an individual has 1X+1Y+2A chromosome composition, it will develop into a fertile male.
(D) An individual with 1X+2A and no Y chromosome will also develop into fertile male.

Answer: (D) An individual with 1X+2A and no Y chromosome will also develop into fertile male.

62. Which one of the following statements regarding AIDS virus is incorrect?

(A) AIDS virus is transmitted by contact of blood of an AIDS patient containing infected cells with the blood of a healthy person.
(B) AIDS virus (HIV) is 200-240 mm in diameter.
(C) AIDS virus (HIV) is contagious via specific body fluids.
(D) It causes destruction of WBCs, unexplained loss of appetite, rapid weight loss over short time and brain damage in case of severe infection.

Answer: (B) AIDS virus (HIV) is 200-240 mm in diameter.

63. Which one of the following statements regarding T-cells is incorrect?

(A) T-cells are differentiated in the thymus gland.
(B) They are of 4 types: Killer, Helper, Memory and Suppressor cells.
(C) Killer cells kill microbes but are not reactive against cancer cells.
(D) Memory T cells retain memory of previous infection and are ready to mount a rapid and vigorous attack on subsequent infection by the same pathogen.

Answer: (C) Killer cells kill microbes but are not reactive against cancer cells.

64. Yellow fever is caused by _______ which is transmitted by _______:

(A) Brugia malayi, Aedes aegypti
(B) Flavivirus, Glossina palpalis
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti, Aedes aegypti
(D) Flavivirus, Aedes aegypti

Answer: (D) Flavivirus, Aedes aegypti

65. Bedbug is a small, reddish brown, wingless insect that feeds on human blood and in so doing causes irritation, itching and inflammation. Which one of the following is the scientific name of bedbug?

(A) Pulex irritans
(B) Cimex hemipterus
(C) Chrysops discalis
(D) Phlebotomus argentipes

Answer: (B) Cimex hemipterus

66. Antibodies are proteins produced by B Cells in response to introduction of an antigen in the body and offer humoral protection against viruses and bacterial pathogens. Who among the following coined the term 'Immunoglobins' for antibodies ?

(A) Macfarlane Burnet in 1959
(B) Peter Medawar in 1962
(C) Edward Jenner in 1960
(D) Joseph-Felix Heremans in 1959

Answer: (D) Joseph-Felix Heremans in 1959

67. Which one of the following statements regarding 'Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) in humans' is incorrect?

(A) Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) in humans is set of genes that code for histocompatibility antigens.
(B) MHC in humans is known as Human Lymphocyte Antigen (HLA) complex.
(C) It is located on chromosome no. 16 in humans.
(D) MHC genes are multiallelic.

Answer: (C) It is located on chromosome no. 16 in humans.

68. Which one among the following statements about 'Photochemical smog' is true?

(A) Photochemical smog is formed by reactions between nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds released from vehicles and industries taking place in the presence of light.
(B) Photochemical smog is a brownish-black air haze formed mainly due to the action of sunlight on SO2 and particulate matter.
(C) PAN is the characteristic component of photochemical smog. Its full form is Peroxide ammonia nitrate.
(D) Photochemical smog is generally associated with cold and humid conditions.

Answer: (A) Photochemical smog is formed by reactions between nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds released from vehicles and industries taking place in the presence of light.

69. Which of the following statements regarding 'Homologous and Analogous organs' is incorrect?

(A) Homologous organs are adapted to perform different functions in different types of organisms.
(B) Homologous organs have similar basic plan and origin.
(C) Analogous organs are adapted to perform similar functions.
(D) Analogous organs show divergent kind of evolution.

Answer: (D) Analogous organs show divergent kind of evolution.

70. Who among the following coined the term "Evolution"?

(A) A. I. Oparin
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Francis Bacon
(D) John Ray

Answer: (B) Herbert Spencer

71. Which one of the following is time period of origin of early primates?

(A) About 65 million years ago
(B) About 10 million years ago
(C) About 165 million years ago
(D) About 265 million years ago

Answer: (A) About 65 million years ago

72. Which one of the following statements regarding 'morphology of frog' is incorrect?

(A) Body of the frog is dorsiventrally flat.
(B) Its body is divided into two parts: Head and Trunk.
(C) It is tetrapod and bears two pairs of limbs.
(D) The hind limbs are longer in size. The feet of hind limbs bear four toes each with small nails. The toes are webbed.

Answer: (D) The hind limbs are longer in size. The feet of hind limbs bear four toes each with small nails. The toes are webbed.

73. Which of the following statements regarding 'vertebral column of frog' is incorrect?

(A) The vertebral column of frog is made up of seven vertebrae and a rod like urostyle.
(B) The first vertebra known as Atlas vertebra is ring like with reduced centrum.
(C) It has single sacral vertebra in its column.
(D) Vertebral column protects the spinal cord and supports head and trunk of the body.

Answer: (A) The vertebral column of frog is made up of seven vertebrae and a rod like urostyle.

74. Match the following and choose the correct option:
Phylum:
P. Ctenophora
Q. Platyhelminthes
R. Arthropoda
S. Coelentrata
Mode of Reproduction:
i. Asexual
ii. Sexual

(A) P-i, Q-ii, R-ii, S-i
(B) P-ii, Q-i and ii, R-ii, S-i and ii
(C) P-i, Q-i, R-i and ii, S-i and ii
(D) P-i, Q-ii, R-i, S-ii

Answer: (B) P-ii, Q-i and ii, R-ii, S-i and ii

75. Which one among the following is the component of a vaccine responsible for stimulating a specific immune response ?

(A) An Antibiotic
(B) An Antibody
(C) An Antigen
(D) An Immunoglobin

Answer: (C) An Antigen

76. Which one of the following statements regarding Pheretima posthuma (Indian earthworm) is incorrect?

(A) Pheretima is nocturnal and lives in burrows.
(B) Its body is long, dark brown, cylindrical and divided into 100-120 segments by ring link grooves called annuli.
(C) Female genital aperture lies mid ventrally on the segment 12.
(D) A pair of male genital pores lie ventrally on segment 18.

Answer: (C) Female genital aperture lies mid ventrally on the segment 12.

77. Which one of the following characteristics of Phylum Annelida is incorrect?

(A) Bilateral symmetry
(B) Digestive tract is complete, and digestion is extracellular.
(C) Body cavity is present (True coelom).
(D) Reproduction is usually asexual, rarely sexual.

Answer: (D) Reproduction is usually asexual, rarely sexual.

78. Which one of the following options represents inheritance of skin color in humans?

(A) Inheritance of linked genes
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Multiple alleles
(D) Mutant alleles

Answer: (B) Polygenic inheritance

79. Which one of the following syndromes represents presence of chromosome configuration (44A+XXY)?

(A) Down Syndrome
(B) Turner Syndrome
(C) Marfan Syndrome
(D) Klinefelter Syndrome

Answer: (D) Klinefelter Syndrome

80. The entire body of cockroach is covered by hard plates called as Sclerites. Which one of the following statements about sclerites is incorrect?

(A) Sclerites are formed of chitin which is a polysaccharide of acetylgalactosamine.
(B) Chitin is secreted by epidermis.
(C) Various sclerites collectively form the exoskeleton.
(D) The adjacent sclerites are joined together by thin, soft, flexible arthrodial membranes to allow movement.

Answer: (A) Sclerites are formed of chitin which is a polysaccharide of acetylgalactosamine.

81. Which one of the following statements about Female cockroach is incorrect?

(A) Abdomen is relatively long and narrow.
(B) Only the first seven abdominal sterna are visible.
(C) A brood pouch is formed by the 7th, 8th and 9th abdominal sterna.
(D) Genital aperture lies on the 8th sternum within the brood pouch.

Answer: (A) Abdomen is relatively long and narrow.

82. Which one of the following species of Solanum has spiny leaves?

(A) Solanum tuberosum
(B) Solanum lycopersicum
(C) Solanum xanthocarpum
(D) Solanum nigrum

Answer: (C) Solanum xanthocarpum

83. When was Human Genome Project officially launched ?

(A) October 10, 1990
(B) September 1, 1991
(C) October 1, 1990
(D) October 30, 1990

Answer: (C) October 1, 1990

84. Which one's of the following statements about rRNAs is/are true?
(i) rRNAs are linear molecules with no folds.
(ii) rRNAs have secondary structure because of intrastrand hydrogen bonding.
(iii) rRNAs have conserved structural domains.
(iv) rRNAs do not have conserved structural domains.

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii)

85. Which one's of the following statements about structure of yeast alanine tRNA is/are true?
(i) It has cloverleaf configuration.
(ii) The secondary structure is due to hydrogen bonding between different bases in different regions of the molecule.
(iii) The structure contains 4 loops in which no base pairing is possible.
(iv) One of the loops has codon 3'-CGI-5'.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (ii)

Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

86. Which one of the following statements about 'Genetic code' is incorrect?

(A) Genetic code is triplet.
(B) Genetic code is commaless.
(C) UGA functions as the start codon.
(D) Genetic code always reads in 5'-3' direction during translation.

Answer: (C) UGA functions as the start codon.

87. Which one of the following is not general characteristic of class Oomycetes ?

(A) They are characterized by oogamous sexual reproduction.
(B) Asexual reproduction by biflagellate zoospores formed inside sporangia.
(C) Hyphal wall mainly consists of chitin.
(D) This group exhibits progressive evolution from aquatic to land habit.

Answer: (C) Hyphal wall mainly consists of chitin.

88. Which one of the following options represents means of asexual reproduction in ascomycetes ?

(A) Zoospores
(B) Ascospore
(C) Aplanospores
(D) Conidia

Answer: (D) Conidia

89. According to Hardy-Weinberg Law, allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation. For this Law to prove true, it must meet some strict conditions given below: Which one of the conditions given below is incorrect?

(A) It is applicable for large population size.
(B) The phenotypic differences in the population should be due to mutations.
(C) There should be no migration of the population.
(D) It should be a randomly mating population.

Answer: (B) The phenotypic differences in the population should be due to mutations.

90. Which one of the following statements about Fungi is true?

(A) Fungi are autotrophs.
(B) Fungi are mixotrophs.
(C) Fungi are heterotrophs.
(D) Fungi are homotrophs.

Answer: (C) Fungi are heterotrophs.

91. Which one of the following is not example of eucarpic fungi?

(A) Synchytrium endobioticum
(B) Pythium debaryanum
(C) Rhizopus stolonifer
(D) Monoblepharis polymorpha

Answer: (A) Synchytrium endobioticum

92. Which one of the following statements about gametophyte of Anthoceros is incorrect?

(A) The gametophyte of Anthoceros is generally simple, dorsiventrally flattened thallus.
(B) The ventral surface of thallus bears tuberculate rhizoids and scales.
(C) In many species of Anthoceros, each cell of the thallus carries a single basin shaped chloroplast with a pyrenoid.
(D) The sex organs are not borne on any special sexual branches, rather they are immersed in the thallus.

Answer: (B) The ventral surface of thallus bears tuberculate rhizoids and scales.

93. Who among the following is referred to as father of Indian Mycology?

(A) E.J. Butler
(B) A.R. Kirtikar
(C) S.N. Das Gupta
(D) J. SenGupta

Answer: (A) E.J. Butler

94. Which one of the following statements about sporophyte of Funaria is correct?

(A) Sporophyte of Funaria consists of a foot and a capsule linked by a small narrow neck.
(B) Sporophyte of Funaria consists of foot, a short seta and spherical capsule.
(C) Sporophyte of Funaria consists of foot, intercalary zone and elongated capsule.
(D) Sporophyte of Funaria consists of foot, elongated seta and pear-shaped capsule covered by calyptra.

Answer: (D) Sporophyte of Funaria consists of foot, elongated seta and pear-shaped capsule covered by calyptra.

95. The sporogonium of Marchantia is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule. The capsule encloses a mass of meiospores and elaters. Which one of the following statements about elaters in Marchantia is incorrect?

(A) The elaters are exceptionally long, slender cells with tapering ends.
(B) They develop from elater mother cells.
(C) They are haploid i.e. they carry one set of chromosomes.
(D) The mature elaters lack protoplasm and so are dead.

Answer: (C) They are haploid i.e. they carry one set of chromosomes.

96. Carl Linnaeus established binomial nomenclature for every living thing. He was a

(A) Swiss Botanist
(B) British Botanist
(C) American Botanist
(D) Swedish Botanist

Answer: (D) Swedish Botanist

97. Which one of the following fungal species is widely used in bakery industries?

(A) Neurospora sitophila
(B) Alternaria solani
(C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(D) Aspergillus niger

Answer: (C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

98. Who among the following established Five Kingdom classification system for living beings ?

(A) R.H. Whittaker in 1969
(B) E. Chatton in 1937
(C) Ernst Haeckel in 1866
(D) Stanier and Van Niel in 1962

Answer: (A) R.H. Whittaker in 1969

99. Who among the following defined Systematics as a "Scientific study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and of any and all relationships between them." ?

(A) Linnaeus (1737)
(B) Simpson (1961)
(C) Huxley (1888)
(D) Lawrence (1951)

Answer: (B) Simpson (1961)

100. Which one of the following statements about Taxonomy and Systematics is incorrect?

(A) Taxonomy is the science of naming, describing, and classifying organisms into groups.
(B) Systematics is a broader field that studies the evolutionary history and genetic relationships between organisms.
(C) Goal of Systematics is to find out how organisms evolved from common ancestors.
(D) Taxonomy is concerned with mapping family trees and comparing DNA.

Answer: (D) Taxonomy is concerned with mapping family trees and comparing DNA.

101. Which one of the following statements about viruses justify their importance from the evolutionary point of view?

(A) They cause serious plant and animal diseases
(B) They also attack bacteria involved in industrial processes
(C) They are also known to clean water bodies by infecting and lysing harmful bacteria
(D) They stand at the very threshold of life representing evolution of other organisms

Answer: (D) They stand at the very threshold of life representing evolution of other organisms

102. Which one among the following represents the location of meiotic division in Agaricus?

(A) Basidium
(B) Basidiocarp
(C) Basidiospore
(D) Chlamydospore

Answer: (A) Basidium

103. Gibberellins are plant hormones produced by a fungal species. Which one of the following fungal species produces Gibberellins ?

(A) Gibberella fujikuroi
(B) Gibberella pulicaris
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Puccinia graminis

Answer: (A) Gibberella fujikuroi

104. Which one of the following statements about TMV is correct?

(A) TMV constitutes 90% of protein and 10% of DNA
(B) TMV constitutes 95% of protein and 5% of RNA
(C) TMV constitutes 80% of protein and 20% of RNA
(D) TMV constitutes 85% of protein and 15% of DNA

Answer: (B) TMV constitutes 95% of protein and 5% of RNA

105. Which one of the following statements about "Cancer" is not true?

(A) Cancer causing agents are collectively called as "Carcinogens"
(B) Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled proliferation and reduced responsiveness to growth-regulating signals.
(C) The spread of cancer cells from their original site to distant parts of the body is called apoptosis.
(D) Persistent genital high-risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection is strongly associated with cervical cancer.

Answer: (C) The spread of cancer cells from their original site to distant parts of the body is called apoptosis.

106. Which one of the following sequences of "Some of the steps regarding origin of life" is correct?

(A) Free atoms → Complex inorganic molecules → Eobionts → Coacervates → First primitive cells
(B) Simple organic molecules → Free atoms → Eobionts → Complex organic molecules → Free gene → First primitive cells
(C) Free atoms → Simple organic molecules → Complex organic molecules → Eobionts → First primitive cells
(D) Free atoms → Simple inorganic molecules → Eobionts → Free gene → Coacervates → First primitive cells

Answer: (C) Free atoms → Simple organic molecules → Complex organic molecules → Eobionts → First primitive cells

107. Who among the following developed the concept of "Adaptive radiation in mammals"?

(A) Haeckel (1894)
(B) Osborn (1898)
(C) Altman (1890)
(D) Wagner (1861)

Answer: (B) Osborn (1898)

108. The lac operon is a group of genes in bacteria like E. coli that work together to break down lactose. In the absence of lactose, the lac repressor binds to which one of the following regions of the lac operon?

(A) Promoter
(B) Operator
(C) Lac Z gene
(D) Lac Y gene

Answer: (B) Operator

109. Who among the following coined the term "Species" and provided the first clear biological definition for species?

(A) John Ray
(B) De Candolle
(C) Mayr
(D) Lotsy

Answer: (A) John Ray

110. Which one of the following represents canopy shape of Pinus tree?

(A) Round/oval
(B) Pyramidal/conical
(C) Columnar
(D) Spreading/irregular

Answer: (B) Pyramidal/conical

111. Which one of the following statements about the genus Cycas is not true?

(A) Some of the features of Cycas are similar to ferns.
(B) Sporophylls of Cycas are aggregated in male and female cones
(C) Sperms in Cycas are motile and multiflagellate.
(D) Female gametophyte in Cycas is completely dependent on sporophyte within which it is retained

Answer: (B) Sporophylls of Cycas are aggregated in male and female cones

112. Which one among the following statements regarding "General characteristics of chordates" is true at least at some stage of their life?

(A) They are marine animals.
(B) Their outer body is wrapped in a tough test made of tunicine (a cellulose-like substance)
(C) They have Pharyngeal Slits or Pouches
(D) They reproduce only by asexual means by budding.

Answer: (C) They have Pharyngeal Slits or Pouches

113. Which one of the following constitutes the most important barrier between different species?

(A) Geographic distribution
(B) Phenotypic differences within species
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Reproductive isolation

114. Which one of the following statements regarding "Reproduction in Selaginella" is incorrect?

(A) Selaginella is heterosporous and produces microspores and megaspores
(B) Microspores are produced in microsporangia and megaspores are produced in megasporangia.
(C) Microsporangia and megasporangia arise in the axils of microsporophylls and megasporophylls respectively.
(D) Microsporophylls are arranged compactly in cone-like structures while megasporophylls are loosely arranged.

Answer: (D) Microsporophylls are arranged compactly in cone-like structures while megasporophylls are loosely arranged.

115. In Equisetum, two long band like structures are attached to the spores. They are known as elaters. Which one of the following statements about elaters in Equisetum is not true?

(A) Elaters are closely wound around spores till maturity.
(B) At maturity, they unwind, detach from the spore and fall apart
(C) The tips of elaters are slightly expanded and spoon like.
(D) They help in dehiscence of sporangia and dispersal of spores

Answer: (B) At maturity, they unwind, detach from the spore and fall apart

116. Who among the following developed the technique of DNA fingerprinting?

(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Kary Mullis
(C) Frederick Sanger
(D) Alec Jeffreys

Answer: (D) Alec Jeffreys

117. Which one of the following genera of gymnosperms is used for ornamental purposes due to its large leaves forming an attractive crown at the top of unbranched stem?

(A) Cedrus
(B) Pinus
(C) Cupressus
(D) Cycas

Answer: (D) Cycas

118. Which one among the following statements regarding 'General characteristics of Phylum Porifera' is not true?

(A) Their bodies are perforated by numerous tiny entry pores called ostia
(B) Their skeleton is composed of flexible spongin fibres or mineralized spicules
(C) Their body is mostly asymmetrical, while a few species show radial symmetry.
(D) They are characterized by having ventral and solid nerve cord.

Answer: (D) They are characterized by having ventral and solid nerve cord.

119. Which one of the following pteridophytes is rich in silica giving rough and abrasive touch and is used to clean utensils and polish wood?

(A) Marsilea
(B) Lycopodium
(C) Selaginella
(D) Equisetum

Answer: (D) Equisetum

120. Which one of the following algal genera is commercially used in the production of Agar?

(A) Gelidium
(B) Chara
(C) Ectocarpus
(D) Porphyra

Answer: (A) Gelidium

121. Which one among the following classes of the Phylum Chordata is characterized by the presence of feathers?

(A) Reptilia
(B) Mammalia
(C) Aves
(D) Amphibia

Answer: (C) Aves

122. EcoRI is the name of a restriction endonuclease widely used in Recombinant DNA Technology. In 'EcoRI', E stands for

(A) Endonuclease
(B) Escherichia
(C) Enzyme
(D) Entity

Answer: (B) Escherichia

123. Which one of the following statements about 'Biopatent' is not true?

(A) A biopatent is a legal right granted by a government to an inventor for a novel and legally patentable biological invention or process.
(B) A biopatent is a legal right granted by a government to an inventor for any naturally occurring organism with wide geological distribution.
(C) The owner of the biopatent has the exclusive control and can decide how the biological product is used or sold.
(D) Biopatent covers genetically modified bacteria, modified cell lines and genes, and specific bio-process methods.

Answer: (B) A biopatent is a legal right granted by a government to an inventor for any naturally occurring organism with wide geological distribution.

124. Asexual reproduction in Volvox is achieved by

(A) Biflagellate zoospores
(B) Aplanospores
(C) Gonidia
(D) Conidia

Answer: (C) Gonidia

125. Which one among the following pairs is not matched correctly?

(A) Spirulina — Widely used for human nutrition
(B) Nostoc — Heterocysts
(C) Cyanobacteria — True algae
(D) Anabaena — Azolla

Answer: (C) Cyanobacteria — True algae

126. A river is an example of which one of the following types of ecosystems?

(A) Artificial ecosystem
(B) Lotic ecosystem
(C) Lentic ecosystem
(D) Marine ecosystem

Answer: (B) Lotic ecosystem

127. Who among the following proposed 'Competition Exclusion Principle' ?

(A) A.G. Tansley (1935)
(B) G.F. Gause (1934)
(C) F.E. Clements (1916)
(D) E.P. Odum (1950)

Answer: (B) G.F. Gause (1934)

128. Which one of the following represent functional unit of nature in which living organisms interact with one another and with their physical environment?

(A) Biosphere
(B) Population
(C) Community
(D) Ecosystem

Answer: (D) Ecosystem

129. Which one among the following statements about 'Potential natality' is true?

(A) It is the maximum possible number of individuals that a population can produce in a given period of time under ideal unconstrained environmental conditions.
(B) It is the number of individuals that a population can produce over a given period of time under existing (constrained) environmental conditions.
(C) It is lowest death rate in a population over a given period of time under existing (constrained) environmental conditions.
(D) It is lowest death rate in a population over a given period of time under ideal (unconstrained) environmental conditions.

Answer: (A) It is the maximum possible number of individuals that a population can produce in a given period of time under ideal unconstrained environmental conditions.

130. Which one among the following types of interactions exist between Cuscuta and its host plant?

(A) Commensalism
(B) Competition
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism

Answer: (D) Parasitism

131. Which one of the following statements about Biodiversity is incorrect?

(A) Biodiversity contributes to food security mainly by providing diverse crop varieties and genetic resources
(B) Biodiversity provides most of the medicines and industrial products
(C) Biodiversity destabilizes the climate
(D) Biodiversity provides opportunities for ecotourism and recreation.

Answer: (C) Biodiversity destabilizes the climate

132. Consider a situation when one observes two closely related mammals living in different types of environments, one in polar region and another near equator. According to Allen's rule, which one of the following options with regard to their morphological features will be true for mammals living near equator?

(A) Shorter limbs and smaller ears
(B) Smaller body surface area
(C) Shorter appendages
(D) Longer limbs and larger ears

Answer: (D) Longer limbs and larger ears

133. Which one of the following statements about "Ecological Succession" is incorrect?

(A) Lichen species are considered as pioneer species for Primary succession.
(B) Fast growing grass species are considered pioneer species for Secondary succession.
(C) Primary succession occurs on newly formed soil.
(D) Secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil left behind after a fire or flood.

Answer: (C) Primary succession occurs on newly formed soil.

134. Match the following and choose the correct option:
P. National Park — i. In situ conservation
Q. Wildlife sanctuary — i. In situ conservation
R. Seed bank — ii. Ex situ conservation
S. Botanical Garden — ii. Ex situ conservation

(A) P-ii, Q-ii, R-i, S-i
(B) P-i, Q-ii, R-i, S-ii
(C) P-ii, Q-i, R-ii, S-i
(D) P-i, Q-i, R-ii, S-ii

Answer: (D) P-i, Q-i, R-ii, S-ii

135. Which one of the following statements is the best one to summarize the relevance of Biology to mankind?

(A) The science of Biology is concerned with classification of living organisms.
(B) The science of Biology contributes to our knowledge on crop production.
(C) Biology has application in human health care and cure.
(D) Biology covers different fields of science including classification and detailed study of living organisms, agriculture, human and animal health, medicine, biotechnology, environmental conservation, food security, nutrition, molecular biology, physiology, inheritance etc.

Answer: (D) Biology covers different fields of science including classification and detailed study of living organisms, agriculture, human and animal health, medicine, biotechnology, environmental conservation, food security, nutrition, molecular biology, physiology, inheritance etc.

136. Which one among the following options regarding "Causes of Eutrophication in lakes and rivers" is incorrect?

(A) Agricultural runoff rich in N and P.
(B) A pre-existing dense plant population in water.
(C) Discharge of untreated sewage.
(D) Discharge of animal waste.

Answer: (B) A pre-existing dense plant population in water.

137. Which one among the following is not a Greenhouse gas ?

(A) Water vapour
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide

Answer: (C) Nitrogen

138. In which of the following regions of atmosphere, ozone layer is present?

(A) Troposphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Exosphere
(D) Stratosphere

Answer: (D) Stratosphere

139. Which one among the following is the first major recombinant pharmaceutical produced using genetically modified bacteria ?

(A) Human growth hormone
(B) Erythropoietin
(C) Interferon
(D) Human insulin

Answer: (D) Human insulin

140. Which one of the following definitions of 'Species' is true as per "Biological Species Concept"?

(A) A species can be defined as a group of organisms that have identical morphological feature.
(B) A species can be defined as a group of organisms that live in the same geographical area.
(C) A species can be defined as a group of organisms that can interbreed but produce sterile offsprings.
(D) A species can be defined as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offsprings.

Answer: (D) A species can be defined as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offsprings.

141. Considering taxonomic hierarchy, which one of the following options is the category immediately above genus?

(A) Division
(B) Family
(C) Order
(D) Class

Answer: (B) Family

142. Which one of the following statements about Archaebacteria is incorrect?

(A) They are prokaryotic organisms.
(B) They can survive harsh environments like hot springs and acidic pools.
(C) They possess unique cell wall and membrane characteristics.
(D) They are among recent life forms on earth.

Answer: (D) They are among recent life forms on earth.

143. Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) has a wavelength of

(A) 200-400 nm
(B) 500-700 nm
(C) 700-900 nm
(D) 400-700 nm

Answer: (D) 400-700 nm

144. Which one among the following cannot be considered for the main objectives of Reproductive health program of a country?

(A) To create awareness among people about reproductive health and sexually transmitted diseases.
(B) To reduce maternal mortality rates.
(C) To increase birth rate.
(D) To help in family planning and provide access to safe, effective and affordable contraceptives.

Answer: (C) To increase birth rate.

145. Proteins are macromolecules made up of amino acids chains. Which one among the following types of bonds are known to link adjacent amino acids in a protein molecule ?

(A) Phosphodiester bonds
(B) Peptide bonds
(C) Glycosidic bonds
(D) Hydrogen bonds

Answer: (B) Peptide bonds

146. Which one of the following statements is not true about Transpiration?

(A) Rate of transpiration is influenced by number and size of stomata.
(B) Stomata are tiny pores, each surrounded by guard cells.
(C) Guard cells are usually larger in size as compared to surrounding epidermal cells.
(D) Guard cells regulate transpiration and gaseous exchange.

Answer: (C) Guard cells are usually larger in size as compared to surrounding epidermal cells.

147. Who demonstrated that burning candle and animal respiration produce foul smell and plants can purify them?

(A) Priestley (1771)
(B) Ingen-Housz (1779)
(C) Dutrochet (1837)
(D) Liebig (1840)

Answer: (A) Priestley (1771)

148. Which one of the following statements about mitochondria is incorrect?

(A) Mitochondria contribute to heredity.
(B) Mitochondria are involved in ATP synthesis.
(C) Mitochondria have single stranded circular DNA.
(D) Cristae are the folds in inner membrane of mitochondria.

Answer: (C) Mitochondria have single stranded circular DNA.

149. Who among the following proposed the Cell theory?

(A) Schleiden and Hooke in 1849-1850
(B) Schleiden and Schwann in 1838-1839
(C) Schwann and Virchow in 1850
(D) Robert Hooke in 1839

Answer: (B) Schleiden and Schwann in 1838-1839

150. Which one of the following is an example of Stearic acid ?

(A) Unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(B) Saturated fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms.
(C) Unsaturated fatty acid which is not present in animal fats.
(D) Saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

Answer: (D) Saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

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Model Test Paper / Sample Question Paper 2026-27

Punjab English Lecturer Question Paper (26-09-2026) –Unofficial Answer key

1. Animal communication is context-bound such that they can communicate only about the immediate environment while human language is context-free and humans can communicate about objects and events not present in their immediate time and place. The phenomenon is termed:

2. The property of arbitrariness of human language refers to:

3. Which of the following is not important for smooth intercultural communication?

4. Which of the following is not a mode of mass communication?

5. R.P. English is the prestigious, South-eastern accent of British English. What does it stand for?

6. Which of the following is not part of the articulatory system?

7. Which of the following plays an important role in producing nasal sounds by lowering itself?

8. Its front part is prominent in the neck and is commonly called 'Adam's apple'. The structure described is:

9. In R.P. English there are _______ consonants.

10. In English the sounds /p b/ /t d/ and /k g/ come under the category of:

11. The following feature of speech helps to determine whether a particular word is noun/adjective or verb:

12. Which of the following is the chief means within connected speech by which the speaker conveys his attitudes and emotions like politeness, assertiveness etc.?

13. Which of the following is not a grammatical function of falling tone?

14. A morpheme is the _______ unit of form that has meaning in a given language.

15. The study of words in terms of word structure is called:

16. The process of adding affixes to a base without changing its form class or part of speech is called:

17. Affixes refer to:

18. The doubling of vowels or consonants in a word is called:

19. Apocope is a process of word formation in which:

20. One of the limitations of Phrase Structure Grammars is:

21. The word 'bank' is a classic example of:

22. The phrase 'very old men and women' illustrate:

23. Which of the following is a rule under Transformational Generative Grammar?

24. Who wrote the book Syntactic Structures in 1957?

25. In Chomsky's Aspects model, the Deep Structure is changed by means of Transformations into:

26. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

27. When the meaning of one form is included in the meaning of another, the relationship is called:

28. Which of the following expressions qualify for deixis?

29. Turn-taking is an important concept under:

30. The words or phrases used to indicate that we are not really sure that what we are saying is sufficiently correct or complete are known as:

31. If linguistic groups are identified as middle class, working class, upper class etc., the speech varieties under study are referred to:

32. When people attempt to reduce social distance and use forms that are similar to those used by the person we are talking to, the phenomenon is called:

33. Who gave the concept of 'Communicative Competence'?

34. Communicative Competence can be best illustrated as:

35. In his Preface to Pygmalion _____ says that 'it is impossible for an Englishman to open his mouth without making some other Englishman despise him'.

36. According to Bernstein, the middle class uses:

37. Who reviewed Bernstein's verbal deprivation theory and cited that black children living in ghettoes have same competence in language as everyone else?

38. There have been constant attempts to establish and institutionalize an Indian accent of English called:

39. In Browning's My Last Duchess, the Duke's apparently courteous description of the Duchess gradually exposes his possessiveness and authoritarianism. This effect is primarily produced by Browning's use of:

40. Which sequence places the following works in approximately correct chronological order?

41. "Bickerstaff" pamphlets are associated with:

42. Butler, Dryden, and Rochester were among the thinkers who followed the doctrine of which philosopher of skepticism who argued that knowledge derives from our senses, but the inaccuracy of our senses makes reliable knowledge impossible to achieve?

43. In Donne's "A Valediction : Forbidding Mourning", the lovers are compared to the two legs of a:

44. Henry Fielding's Joseph Andrews parodies Samuel Richardson's Pamela, but takes its model from what work of continental literature?

45. Dryden wrote _____ in 1660 to welcome the new regime of King Charles II.

46. Which writer is most strongly associated with the fictional town of Wessex?

47. The publication of Lyrical Ballads in 1798 is conventionally regarded as a landmark in:

48. Which of the following novelists does not belong to the Victorian period?

49. Which Shelley poem contains the famous line concerning the "unacknowledged legislators of the world"?

50. James Joyce's Ulysses is structurally connected to:

51. Which of the following is correctly matched with its dominant formal characteristic?

52. The Room on the Roof, Ruskin Bond's first novel, centres on:

53. Which novel by Salman Rushdie features the character Moraes Zogoiby, who is born with the clock of the centuries ticking inside him, and blends Indian history with Jewish-Cochin heritage?

54. In which year did Seamus Heaney win the Nobel Prize in Literature?

55. Which of the following sentence contains alliteration?

56. The title of Anita Desai's novel Fire on the Mountain is taken from which novel?

57. Which literary club did Alexander Pope and Jonathan Swift co-found to satirize academic pedantry and false learning?

58. Which poem is known as a "rhymed gazette"?

59. What is the real name of the author who wrote under the pen name George Eliot?

60. How many lines are there in a sonnet?

61. Romantic Age in England was greatly influenced by the following revolution:

62. "I cannot rest from travel : I will drink / Life to the lees : All times I have enjoy'd / Greatly, have suffer'd greatly, both with those / That loved me, and alone, on shore"In which poem of Tennyson do these lines appear?

63. Which George Orwell novel introduces the dystopian concept of "Big Brother" and "Thought Police"?

64. Which figure of speech is used in "How they clang, and clash, and roar! / On the bosom of the palpitating air!"

65. Which scientific method does Bacon primarily advocate for in his work Novum Organum?

66. With which famous architect did Ben Jonson frequently collaborate to produce elaborate court masques?

67. Who kills Cornelia's son, Marcello, in a sudden fit of volatile rage in The White Devil?

68. Which sequence accurately tracks the publication of Arundhati Roy's major standalone non-fiction books/booklets from earliest to latest?

69. To whom did Virginia Woolf officially dedicate her 1928 novel Orlando : A Biography?

70. In the text of Joseph Conrad's Heart of Darkness, what are the exact final words spoken by Kurtz before his death, as recorded verbatim by Marlow?

71. Which of Robert Frost's poems was explicitly chosen and read aloud by him at the Presidential Inauguration of John F. Kennedy in 1961?

72. What is the exact title of the third, central section of T.S. Eliot's 1922 modernist masterpiece The Waste Land?

73. Which prominent English author and member of the Bloomsbury Group wrote the preface to Mulk Raj Anand's debut novel Untouchable (1935)?

74. In Lord Byron's Don Juan, Canto I, who is explicitly named as the mother of the protagonist Don Juan?

76. When John Milton writes in Paradise Lost, "No light, but rather darkness visible," what exact figure of speech is created by the immediate structural juxtaposition of contradictory terms?

77. Which of Anita Desai's novels is partitioned structurally around the background of the 1947 Partition of India, focusing on the memories of Bim and Tara in Old Delhi?

62. "I cannot rest from travel : I will drink / Life to the lees : All times I have enjoy'd / Greatly, have suffer'd greatly, both with those / That loved me, and alone, on shore"
In which poem of Tennyson do these lines appear?