B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Previous Year Question Paper - Part 1
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Question Paper - Part 1
Test your knowledge with the official PPMET 2024 examination questions. Click "Show Answer" to check your response against the official answer key!
1. Which of the following is non aromatic compound?
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Correct Answer: c
2. The correct order of boiling points of 2,2-dimethylpropane, 2-methylbutane and n-pentane is
- a. n-pentane > 2,2-dimethylpropane > 2-methyl- butane
- b. n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2,2-dimethyl- propane
- c. 2,2-dimethylpropane > 2-methylbutane > n-pentane
- d. 2-methylbutane > n-pentane > 2,2-dimethyl- propane
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Correct Answer: b
3. Select the compound that will show Cis-Trans isomerism:
- a. (CH3)2C = CH - C2H5
- b. C6H5CH = CH - CH3
- c. CH3CH = C(Cl)2
- d. Br2 C = C Cl CH3
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Correct Answer: b
4. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic character is:
- a. B > Al > Mg > K
- b. Al > Mg > B > K
- c. Mg > Al > K > B
- d. K > Mg > Al > B
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Correct Answer: d
5. A process in which the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings is known as
- a. isothermal
- b. isobaric
- c. isochoric
- d. adiabatic
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Correct Answer: d
6. The bond energy of an O-H bond is 109 kcal/mol. When a mole of water is formed, then
- a. 109 kcal is released
- b. 218 kcal is released
- c. 109 kcal is absorbed
- d. 218 kcal is absorbed
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Correct Answer: b
7. Which of following is not a general characteristic of equilibria involving physical processes?
- a. All the physical processes stop at equilibrium.
- b. All measurable properties of the system remain constant.
- c. Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
- d. The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is dynamic but stable condition.
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Correct Answer: a
8. Which of the following is an example of a redox reaction?
- a. XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
- b. XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF
- c. XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2
- d. XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF]+PF6-
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Correct Answer: c
9. Choose the compound that cannot be prepared by Kolbe's electrolytic method:
- a. Ethane
- b. Butane
- c. Methane
- d. Hexane
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Correct Answer: c
10. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3, and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
- a. The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is smaller than H-N-H bond angle in NH3
- b. The H - C - H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H-N-H bond angle in NH3
- c. The H - C - H bond angle in CH4, H-N-H bond angle in NH3 and H-O-H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90°
- d. The H-O-H bond angle in H2O is larger than H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
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Correct Answer: d
11. The reaction CH3CH2I + KOH(aq) → CH3CH2OH + KI is classified as:
- a. electrophilic substitution
- b. nucleophilic substitution
- c. elimination
- d. addition
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Correct Answer: b
12. ΔG and E0cell for spontaneous reaction will be
- a. Positive, negative
- b. Negative, negative
- c. Negative, positive
- d. Positive, positive
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Correct Answer: c
13. Nucleosides are composed of
- a. a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.
- b. a nitrogenous base and phosphoric acid.
- c. a pentose sugar and phosphoric acid.
- d. a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and phosphoric acid.
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Correct Answer: a
14. Match the properties with the elements of 3d series:
(i) lowest enthalpy of atomisation (p) Sc
(ii) shows maximum number of oxidation states (q) Mn
(iii) transition metal that does not form coloured compounds (r) Zn
(s) Ti
- a. (i) (r), (ii) (q), (iii) (p)
- b. (i) (r), (ii) (s), (iii) (p)
- c. (i) (p), (ii) (q), (iii) (r)
- d. (i) (s), (ii) (r), (iii) (p)
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Correct Answer: a
15. Which one of the following has lowest pka value?
- a. CH3COOH
- b. O2NCH2COOH
- c. Cl- CH2COOH
- d. HCOOH
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Correct Answer: b
16. Iodoform test is not given by
- a. Ethanol
- b. Ethanal
- c. Pentan-2-one
- d. Pentan-3-one
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Correct Answer: d
17. Which of the following is not correct about order of a reaction?
- a. The order of a reaction can be a fractional number.
- b. Order of a reaction is experimentally determined quantity.
- c. The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
- d. The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression.
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Correct Answer: c
18. Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?
- a. Benzene and toluene
- b. n- hexane and n- heptane
- c. Ethanol and acetone
- d. Bromoethane and chloroethane
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Correct Answer: c
19. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields
- a. o-Cresol
- b. m-Cresol
- c. 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
- d. Benzyl alcohol
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Correct Answer: d
20. In which of the following solvents, the C4H8NH3+X- is soluble?
- a. water
- b. acetone
- c. ether
- d. bromine water
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Correct Answer: a
21. Oxygen and hydrogen gases are at same temperature T. The average kinetic energy of an oxygen molecule will be _______ the average kinetic energy of hydrogen molecule.
- a. 16 times.
- b. 4 times.
- c. Equal to.
- d. 1/4 times
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Correct Answer: c
22. A U - tube contains water and an unknown liquid separated by mercury as shown in the figure. The mercury column in the two arms is in the level with 10.0cm of water in one arm and 11.5cm of unknown liquid in other arm. The relative density of the unknown liquid is
- a. 0.869 g/cm3
- b. 0.899 g/cm3
- c. 0.798 g/cm3
- d. 0.888 g/cm3
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Correct Answer: a
23. An infinite line of charge has a linear charge density of 10-7 C/m. What will be the magnitude of the force acting on an alpha particle placed at a distance of 4 cm from the line of charge?
- a. 14.4 × 10-15 N
- b. 7.2 × 10-15 N
- c. 4.5 × 104 N
- d. 9 × 104 N
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Correct Answer: a
24. The large-scale transmission of electrical energy over long distances is done with the use of transformers. The voltage output of the generator is stepped-up because of
- a. reduction of current
- b. reduction of current and voltage both
- c. power loss is cut down.
- d. a and c both
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Correct Answer: d
25. Two concentric and coplanar circular loops P and Q have their radii in the ratio 2:3. Loop Q carries a current 9 A in the anticlockwise direction. For the magnetic field to be zero at the common centre, loop P must carry
- a. 3 A in clockwise direction
- b. 9 A in clockwise direction
- c. 6 A in anti-clockwise direction
- d. 6 A in clockwise direction
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Correct Answer: d
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Previous Year Question Paper
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Question Paper - Part 2
Welcome to Part 2 of the official PPMET 2024 examination questions. Read carefully and click "Show Answer" to reveal the correct option from the official answer key!
26. The value of young modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
- a. Zero
- b. Positive
- c. negative
- d. infinite
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Correct Answer: d
27. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly wheel of mass 15 kg and radius 10 cm. A steady force 15 N is applied on the cord as shown in the figure. The fly wheel is mounted on horizontal axle with frictionless bearings. The angular acceleration of the wheel is
[Insert Diagram of Fly Wheel Here]
- a. 0.2 rad/s2
- b. 2 rad/s2
- c. 20 rad/s2
- d. 200 rad/s2
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Correct Answer: c
28. Three vectors are given as p = 3i - 4j, Q = 6i - 8j and R = (3/4)i - j, then which of the following is correct?
- a. P, Q and R are equal vectors
- b. P, Q, R are parallel
- c. P and Q are equal but R is not equal
- d. P, Q are parallel but R is not parallel
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Correct Answer: b
29. A force F = (2+X) N acts on the particle in the X direction. The work done by this force for the displacement X=1 m to X =2 m is
- a. 2.1 J
- b. 2.5 J
- c. 3.5 J
- d. 4.5 J
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Correct Answer: c
30. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :
- a. [F V T-1]
- b. [F V-1 T-1]
- c. [F V T-2]
- d. [F V-1 T]
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Correct Answer: d
31. A satellite orbits around the earth in a circular path of radius 'r' with a speed v. It loses some of its energy. How would the values of v and r change?
- a. v will decrease and r will increase
- b. v will increase and r will decrease
- c. Both v and r will decrease
- d. Both v and r will increase
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Correct Answer: b
32. Two soap bubbles have radii in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of the work done in blowing these bubbles are:
- a. 4:9
- b. 3:5
- c. 2:3
- d. 4:5
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Correct Answer: a
33. The rate of flow of fluid through an orifice of a tank does not depend on:
- a. the size of the orifice
- b. the density of the fluid
- c. the height of the fluid column
- d. the acceleration due to gravity
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Correct Answer: b
34. The work function for a metal surface is 4.14 eV. The threshold wavelength for this metal surface is:
- a. 4125 Å
- b. 2062.5 Å
- c. 3000 Å
- d. 6000 Å
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Correct Answer: c
35. The electric field required to keep a water drop of mass m' just to remain suspended, when charged with one electron, is
- a. mg
- b. (mg)/e
- c. emg
- d. (em)/8
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Correct Answer: b
36. If the potential difference V applied across a conductor is increased to 2V with its temperature kept constant then the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor will
- a. Remains the same
- b. Becomes half of its initial value
- c. Becomes double of its initial value
- d. Becomes zero
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Correct Answer: c
37. Critical velocity of the liquid
- a. decreases when radius decreases
- b. increases when density increases
- c. increases when radius increases
- d. decreases when density increases
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Correct Answer: d
38. An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a concave mirror which produces a real image 3 cm high. What is the focal length of the mirror?
- a. - 9.6 cm
- b. - 3.6 cm
- c. - 6.3 cm
- d. - 8.3 cm
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Correct Answer: a
39. Electric charges of 1 microcoulomb, -1 microcoulomb and 2 microcoulomb are placed in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC having length of each side 10cm. The resultant force on the charge at C is
- a. 0.9 N
- b. 1.8 N
- c. 2.7 N
- d. 3.6 N
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Correct Answer: b
40. Two identical cells each of EMF ' E ', having negligible internal resistance, are connected in parallel with each other across an external resistance R. What is the current through this resistance
- a. E/R
- b. 2E/R
- c. ER
- d. E/2R
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Correct Answer: a
41. An infertile couple was advised to undergo In vitro fertilization by the doctor. Out of the options given below, select the correct stage for transfer to the fallopian tube for successful results?
- a. Zygote only
- b. Zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres
- c. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
- d. Blastocyst Stage
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Correct Answer: b
42. Which of the following amino acid residues will constitute the histone core?
- a. Lysine and Arginine
- b. Asparagine and Arginine
- c. Glutamine and Lysine
- d. Asparagine and Glutamine
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Correct Answer: a
43. Evolutionary convergence is development of a
- a. dissimilar set of functions in closely related groups.
- b. common set of functions in groups of different ancestry.
- c. common set of structures in closely related groups.
- d. dissimilar set of functions in unrelated groups.
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Correct Answer: b
44. Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the spread of which of the following diseases in humans?
- a. Ascariasis
- b. Ringworm
- c. Amoebiasis
- d. AIDS
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Correct Answer: d
45. Swathi was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions where the resources are replenished. Which of the following equations will represent the growth in this case? (Where population size is N, birth rate is b, death rate is d, unit time period is t, and carrying capacity is K).
- a. dN/dt = KN
- b. dN/dt = r N
- c. dN/dt = r N(K-N/K)
- d. dN/dt = r N(K+N/K)
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Correct Answer: c
46. Sea Anemone gets attached to the surface of the hermit crab. The kind of population interaction exhibited in this case is
- a. Amensalism
- b. Commensalism
- c. Mutualism
- d. Parasitism
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Correct Answer: b
47. Which of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?
- a. Sacred Groves
- b. Seed Bank
- c. Biosphere Reserve
- d. National Park
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Correct Answer: b
48. Remnants of nucellus are persistent during seed development in:
- a. pea
- b. groundnut
- c. wheat
- d. black pepper
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Correct Answer: d
49. The wall layer of microsporangium which nourishes the pollen grain is:
- a. epidermis
- b. endothecium
- c. 5 middle layers
- d. tapetum
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Correct Answer: d
50. Variations caused due to mutations are
- a. random and directionless
- b. random and directional
- c. p random and small
- d. random, small and directional
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Correct Answer: a
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Previous Year Question Paper
B.Sc. Nursing (PPMET) 2024 Question Paper - Part 3
Welcome to Part 3 of the official PPMET 2024 examination questions. Read carefully and click "Show Answer" to reveal the correct option from the official answer key!
51. In 1987, an agreement was formulated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to freeze the production of "X" to prevent depletion of "Y". "X" and "Y" respectively referred here are:
- a. Ozone; CFCs
- b. CFCs; rays UV
- c. CFCs; Ozone
- d. UV rays; Diatomic oxygen
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Correct Answer: c
52. Which of the following features relates to biodegradable substances?
- a. Broken down by biological processes
- b. Remain inert
- c. Persist in environment for long time
- d. May harm the ecosystem
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Correct Answer: a
53. A farmer wants to grow banana plants genetically similar enough to the plants already available in his field. Which one of the following methods would you suggest for this purpose?
- a. Regeneration
- b. Budding
- c. Vegetative propagation
- d. Sexual reproduction
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Correct Answer: c
54. Height of a plant is regulated by:
- a. DNA which is directly influenced by growth hormone.
- b. Genes which regulate the proteins directly.
- c. Growth hormones under the influence of the enzymes coded by a gene.
- d. Growth hormones directly under the influence a gene.
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Correct Answer: c
55. Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by
- a. Facilitated Diffusion
- b. Passive Transport
- c. Active Transport
- d. Osmosis
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Correct Answer: c
56. Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?
- a. Over exploitation for economic gain
- b. Alien species invasions
- c. Co-extinctions
- d. Habitat loss and fragmentation
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Correct Answer: d
57. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:
- a. Selaginella and Salvinia
- b. Psilotum and Salvinia
- c. Equisetum and Salvinia
- d. Lycopodium and Selaginella
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Correct Answer: a
58. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
- a. Sutton and Boveri
- b. Alfred Sturtevant
- c. Henking
- d. Thomas Hunt Morgan
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Correct Answer: b
59. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
- a. To trap pollen grains
- b. To attract insects
- c. To protect seeds
- d. All of these
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Correct Answer: a
60. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the Atmosphere is measured in terms of
- a. Decibels
- b. Decametre
- c. Kilobase
- d. Dobson units
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Correct Answer: d
Direction (Q. 61 – 63): Consider a group comprising of 4 students – Rekha, Babita, Mamta and Neha, who stand in a row. Rekha and Babita stand in sixth and seventh from the left. Mamta and Neha stand in the fourth and fifth position respectively from the right. When Babita and Mamta exchange their positions, then Babita will be fifteenth from the left.
61. Originally Neha's position from the left is:
- a. 5th
- b. 13th
- c. 14th
- d. 15th
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Correct Answer: c
62. After exchange of position between Babita and Mamta, Mamta's position from the right is:
- a. 5th
- b. 10th
- c. 11th
- d. 12th
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Correct Answer: d
63. If Neha and Rekha exchange their positions between themselves, then after the exchange, Neha's position from the left will be:
- a. 6th
- b. 10th
- c. 11th
- d. 9th
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Correct Answer: a
64. 60% of 264 is same as
- a. 10% of 44
- b. 15% of 1056
- c. 30% of 132
- d. 12% of 144
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Correct Answer: b
65. Which figure will be placed in the blank space to complete the pattern:
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Correct Answer: d
Welcome to the final part of the official PPMET 2024 examination questions. Read carefully and click "Show Answer" to reveal the correct option from the official answer key!
[Insert Venn Diagram featuring circle, triangle, and rectangle with labels A, B, C, X, Y, Z, D Here]
