ਪੰਜਾਬ ਵਿੱਚ ਠੰਢ ਦਾ ਕਹਿਰ: 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ ਲਈ 'ਆਰੇਂਜ ਅਲਰਟ' ਜਾਰੀ, ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਅਤੇ ਸੀਤ ਲਹਿਰ ਦੀ ਚੇਤਾਵਨੀ

 

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਮੌਸਮ ਅਪਡੇਟ: 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ 2026

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਵਿੱਚ ਠੰਢ ਦਾ ਕਹਿਰ: 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ ਲਈ 'ਆਰੇਂਜ ਅਲਰਟ' ਜਾਰੀ, ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਅਤੇ ਸੀਤ ਲਹਿਰ ਦੀ ਚੇਤਾਵਨੀ

ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ | 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ, 2026: ਪੰਜਾਬ ਅਤੇ ਇਸ ਦੀ ਰਾਜਧਾਨੀ ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ ਵਿੱਚ ਭਾਰੀ ਠੰਢ ਅਤੇ ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਦਾ ਕਹਿਰ ਲਗਾਤਾਰ ਜਾਰੀ ਹੈ। ਭਾਰਤੀ ਮੌਸਮ ਵਿਗਿਆਨ ਵਿਭਾਗ (IMD) ਨੇ ਅੱਜ, 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ ਲਈ ਸੂਬੇ ਦੇ ਕਈ ਹਿੱਸਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਆਰੇਂਜ ਅਲਰਟ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤਾ ਹੈ।

ਮੁੱਖ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ:

  • ਧੁੰਦ ਦਾ ਕਹਿਰ: ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ ਵਰਗੇ ਇਲਾਕਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਵਿਜ਼ੀਬਿਲਟੀ (ਦ੍ਰਿਸ਼ਟਤਾ) ਜ਼ੀਰੋ ਮੀਟਰ ਤੱਕ ਦਰਜ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ।
  • ਤਾਪਮਾਨ ਵਿੱਚ ਗਿਰਾਵਟ: ਪਿਛਲੇ 24 ਘੰਟਿਆਂ ਦੌਰਾਨ ਰਾਜ ਦੇ ਔਸਤ ਤਾਪਮਾਨ ਵਿੱਚ 2.1°C ਦੀ ਗਿਰਾਵਟ ਆਈ ਹੈ।
  • ਸਭ ਤੋਂ ਠੰਢਾ ਸਥਾਨ: ਹੁਸ਼ਿਆਰਪੁਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਘੱਟੋ-ਘੱਟ ਤਾਪਮਾਨ 6.8°C ਦਰਜ ਕੀਤਾ ਗਿਆ।

ਜ਼ਿਲ੍ਹਾ-ਵਾਰ ਮੌਸਮ ਦੀ ਸਥਿਤੀ

ਮੌਸਮ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ, ਅੱਜ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ 18 ਜ਼ਿਲ੍ਹਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਬਹੁਤ ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਪੈਣ ਦੀ ਸੰਭਾਵਨਾ ਹੈ।

ਚੇਤਾਵਨੀ ਦੀ ਕਿਸਮ ਪ੍ਰਭਾਵਿਤ ਜ਼ਿਲ੍ਹੇ
ਬਹੁਤ ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ, ਤਰਨਤਾਰਨ, ਜਲੰਧਰ, ਲੁਧਿਆਣਾ, ਪਟਿਆਲਾ, ਬਠਿੰਡਾ, ਗੁਰਦਾਸਪੁਰ, ਅਤੇ ਹੋਰ।
ਸੀਤ ਲਹਿਰ (Cold Wave) ਅੰਮ੍ਰਿਤਸਰ, ਫਿਰੋਜ਼ਪੁਰ, ਫਾਜ਼ਿਲਕਾ, ਫਰੀਦਕੋਟ, ਮੁਕਤਸਰ, ਮੋਗਾ ਅਤੇ ਬਠਿੰਡਾ।
ਕੋਲਡ ਡੇ (Cold Day) ਹੁਸ਼ਿਆਰਪੁਰ, ਨਵਾਂਸ਼ਹਿਰ, ਕਪੂਰਥਲਾ, ਰੂਪਨਗਰ ਅਤੇ ਸਾਹਿਬਜ਼ਾਦਾ ਅਜੀਤ ਸਿੰਘ ਨਗਰ (ਮੋਹਾਲੀ)।

ਅਗਲੇ ਦਿਨਾਂ ਦਾ ਅਨੁਮਾਨ

ਮੌਸਮ ਕੇਂਦਰ ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ ਦੇ ਨਿਰਦੇਸ਼ਕ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ, ਆਉਣ ਵਾਲੇ 7 ਤੋਂ 8 ਦਿਨਾਂ ਤੱਕ ਮੌਸਮ ਵਿੱਚ ਕੋਈ ਵੱਡਾ ਸੁਧਾਰ ਹੋਣ ਦੀ ਉਮੀਦ ਨਹੀਂ ਹੈ। ਘੱਟੋ-ਘੱਟ ਤਾਪਮਾਨ ਵਿੱਚ ਅਗਲੇ ਦੋ ਦਿਨਾਂ ਦੌਰਾਨ 2 ਤੋਂ 3 ਡਿਗਰੀ ਦੀ ਹੋਰ ਗਿਰਾਵਟ ਆ ਸਕਦੀ ਹੈ। ਮੌਸਮ ਮੁੱਖ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਖੁਸ਼ਕ ਰਹੇਗਾ ਅਤੇ ਮੀਂਹ ਦੀ ਕੋਈ ਸੰਭਾਵਨਾ ਨਹੀਂ ਹੈ।

ਯਾਤਰੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਸਲਾਹ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਜਾਂਦੀ ਹੈ ਕਿ ਉਹ ਸੰਘਣੀ ਧੁੰਦ ਕਾਰਨ ਵਾਹਨ ਚਲਾਉਂਦੇ ਸਮੇਂ ਸਾਵਧਾਨੀ ਵਰਤਣ ਅਤੇ ਫੋਗ ਲਾਈਟਾਂ ਦਾ ਇਸਤੇਮਾਲ ਕਰਨ।

ਸਰੋਤ: ਮੌਸਮ ਵਿਗਿਆਨ ਕੇਂਦਰ ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ (IMD) ਰਿਪੋਰਟ - 5 ਜਨਵਰੀ 2026

NMMS QUESTION PAPER 2025-26 Mathematics – MCQs (131–150)

 


NMMS QUESTION PAPER Mathematics – MCQs (131–150)
Answer Key Included


131. Which of the following is associative property for addition?
(1) x × y = y × x
(2) x + y = y + x
(3) (x + y) + z = x + (y + z)
(4) x − y = y − x

Correct Answer: (3) (x + y) + z = x + (y + z)


132. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23 + 25 = ?
(1) 132
(2) 112
(3) 122
(4) 102

Correct Answer: 169


133. By what number should 256 be multiplied to make it a perfect cube?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

Correct Answer: (4) 2


134. (a + b)² − (a − b)² = ?
(1) −4ab
(2) 4ab
(3) 2a − 2b
(4) 2a + 2b

Correct Answer: (2) 4ab


135. 2x²(x + 1)(x + 3) ÷ 4x(x + 3) = ?
(1) 2x(x + 1)
(2) x²(x + 1) / 2
(3) x(x + 1) / 2
(4) 2x²(x + 1)

Correct Answer: (3) x(x + 1) / 2


136. What is the value of (4³)¹?
(1) 4³
(2) 4⁴
(3) 4²³
(4) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) 4³


137. What is the ones digit in 729³?
(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 1
(4) 7

Correct Answer: (2) 9


138. Which of the following point lies on the y-axis?
(1) (1, 2)
(2) (2, 3)
(3) (4, 0)
(4) (0, 3)

Correct Answer: (4) (0, 3)


139. Area of a trapezium is:
(1) 1/2 (a + b) h
(2) πr²
(3) 1/3 πr²h
(4) 2(l + b)

Correct Answer: (1) 1/2 (a + b) h


140. If the sides of a rectangle are 5x + 2 and 2x + 3, then its perimeter is:
(1) 3x − 1
(2) 7x + 5
(3) 14x + 10
(4) 7x + 10

Correct Answer: (3) 14x + 10


141. (65)² − (55)² = ?
(1) 10
(2) 1200
(3) 20
(4) 120

Correct Answer: (2) 1200


142. If the sum of two numbers is 14 and their difference is 10, then their product is:
(1) 18
(2) 20
(3) 22
(4) 24

Correct Answer: (4) 24


143. Find the H.C.F. of 42, 63 and 140:
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 9

Correct Answer: (3) 7


144. If A + B = 96 and A is half of B, then the value of A is:
(1) 32
(2) 22
(3) 48
(4) 64

Correct Answer: (1) 32


145. The average weight of 21 boys is 64 kg. If the teacher’s weight is added, the average increases by 1 kg. What is the teacher’s weight?
(1) 72
(2) 64
(3) 86
(4) 84

Correct Answer: (3) 86


146. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?
(1) 3/4
(2) 3/7
(3) 1/8
(4) 4/7

Correct Answer: (4) 4/7


147. The perimeter of a rhombus is 56 m and its height is 5 m. Find its area.
(1) 64 sq. m
(2) 70 sq. m
(3) 78 sq. m
(4) 84 sq. m

Correct Answer: (2) 70 sq. m


148. A car covers a distance of 432 km at a speed of 48 km per hour. Time taken is:
(1) 9 hours
(2) 7 hours
(3) 8 hours
(4) 6 hours

Correct Answer: (1) 9 hours


149. Two numbers x and y are in the ratio 5 : 7 and their sum is 36. Find x.
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 18
(4) 19

Correct Answer: (2) 15


150. Find the area of a trapezium with parallel sides 6 cm and 10 cm and height 4 cm.



(1) 40
(2) 42
(3) 36
(4) 32

Correct Answer : (4) 32



NMMS 2025-26 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER SST MCQS 151-180

Social Studies & Civics (MCQs 151-180)

151. The place inside the earth where seismic waves originate is called__.

  • (1) Richter Scale
  • (2) Tectonic Plates
  • (3) Seismic Focus
  • (4) Epicentre
Correct Answer: (3) Seismic Focus

152. When was project Elephant initiated by government to protect wild life?

  • (1) 1994
  • (2) 1992
  • (3) 1975
  • (4) 1973
Correct Answer: (2) 1992

153. Which country is the leading producer of gold in the world?

  • (1) America
  • (2) England
  • (3) India
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (4) None of these (China is the current leading producer)

154. Which forests are found in areas with less than 75 cm of annual rainfall?

  • (1) Deciduous Forests
  • (2) Mountainous Forests
  • (3) Desertic Forests
  • (4) Evergreen Forests
Correct Answer: (3) Desertic Forests

155. Which of the following is not an atomic minerals?

  • (1) Thorium
  • (2) Barium
  • (3) Lithium
  • (4) Magnesium
Correct Answer: (4) Magnesium

156. Total 9 digits of MICR code, First 3 digits specify code?

  • (1) Bank Code
  • (2) Branch Code
  • (3) City Code
  • (4) State Code
Correct Answer: (3) City Code

157. Which account opening is beneficial for a trader ?

  • (1) Recurring deposit account
  • (2) Fixed deposit account
  • (3) Saving Account
  • (4) Current account
Correct Answer: (4) Current account

158. Cyclones in North America are known as

  • (1) Hurricane
  • (2) Typhoons
  • (3) Whirlwinds
  • (4) Storms
Correct Answer: (1) Hurricane

159. Which country is the largest producer of natural gas in the world?

  • (1) Russia
  • (2) U.S.A.
  • (3) Uzbekistan
  • (4) Azerbaijan
Correct Answer: (2) U.S.A.

160. Which continent is considered the origin place of the Coffee Plant?

  • (1) North America
  • (2) South America
  • (3) Asia
  • (4) Africa
Correct Answer: (4) Africa

161. In 1739 A.D. who declare Awadh as independent State?

  • (1) Siraj-ud-daula
  • (2) Nizam-ul-mulk
  • (3) Sadat Khan
  • (4) Haider Ali
Correct Answer: (3) Sadat Khan

162. Who was the first to come to India for the objectives of trade ?

  • (1) British
  • (2) Portuguese
  • (3) Dutch
  • (4) French
Correct Answer: (2) Portuguese

163. To examine the work of East India Company, which act was passed?

  • (1) Regulating Act, 1773
  • (2) Pitts India Act, 1784
  • (3) Charter Act, 1833
  • (4) Cornwallis Code, 1793
Correct Answer: (1) Regulating Act, 1773

164. In 1866-68 Indigo Revolt occurred in which of the following region?

  • (1) Uttar Pradesh
  • (2) Manipur
  • (3) Andhra Pradesh
  • (4) Bihar
Correct Answer: (4) Bihar

165. The first Industry of Jute established in _____ at _____.

  • (1) 1853, Bombay
  • (2) 1854, Raniganj
  • (3) 1854, Bengal
  • (4) 1834, Assam
Correct Answer: (3) 1854, Bengal

166. The Revolt of 1857 started from

  • (1) Delhi
  • (2) Barrackpur
  • (3) Meerut
  • (4) Luckhnow
Correct Answer: (3) Meerut

167. Who is the author of "Premier Varna Prichay"

  • (1) Swami Vivekanand
  • (2) Annie Besant
  • (3) Ishwar Chander Vidya Sagar
  • (4) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Correct Answer: (3) Ishwar Chander Vidya Sagar

168. Periyar Ramaswamy was great social reformer of?

  • (1) Tamilnadu
  • (2) Madhya Pradesh
  • (3) Kerla
  • (4) Jharkhand
Correct Answer: (1) Tamilnadu

169. Match Column A with Column B:
(A) Shanti Niketan (1) Annie Besant
(B) Ghadar Party (2) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Home Rule Movement (3) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Swadeshi and boycott (4) Lala Hardayal
(5) Bipin Chandra Pal

  • (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5
  • (2) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1
  • (3) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-2
  • (4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5
Correct Answer: (4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5

170. The partition of Bengal in ____ was carried out by ____?

  • (1) 1902, Bentinck
  • (2) 1904, Dalhousie
  • (3) 1905, Hasting
  • (4) None of these (Lord Curzon in 1905)
Correct Answer: (4) None of these

171. When was Indian Constitution passed?

  • (1) 26 January, 1949
  • (2) 26 November, 1949
  • (3) 26 November, 1948
  • (4) 26 January, 1950
Correct Answer: (2) 26 November, 1949

172. Anti Dowry Act came into force in the year?

  • (1) 1961
  • (2) 1962
  • (3) 1960
  • (4) 1965
Correct Answer: (1) 1961

173. How Many members are elected from Punjab for Rajya Sabha ?

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 11
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 117
Correct Answer: (3) 7

174. Who resolves the differences between the two house of the Parliament?

  • (1) Prime Minister
  • (2) Speaker
  • (3) Vice President
  • (4) President
Correct Answer: (4) President

175. Who said, "Caste is the most important political party in India"

  • (1) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru
  • (3) Jai Prakash Narayan
  • (4) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
Correct Answer: (3) Jai Prakash Narayan

176. Mandal Commission has recognized ________ schedule caste and schedule tribes.

  • (1) 3703
  • (2) 3743
  • (3) 3561
  • (4) 3748
Correct Answer: (2) 3743

177. 'Right against exploitation' under which article?

  • (1) Article 14-28
  • (2) Article 19-22
  • (3) Article 25-28
  • (4) Article 23-24
Correct Answer: (4) Article 23-24

178. In India, the judges of the Supreme Court can hold their office for up to

  • (1) 58 Years
  • (2) 62 Years
  • (3) 65 Years
  • (4) 70 Years
Correct Answer: (3) 65 Years

179. Who is the first women President of India?

  • (1) Sucheta Kriplani
  • (2) Droupadi Murmu
  • (3) Sarojini Naidu
  • (4) Pratibha Patil
Correct Answer: (4) Pratibha Patil

180. In India first time Electronic Voting Machine was used in which Lok Sabha Election?

  • (1) 2004
  • (2) 2009
  • (3) 1999
  • (4) 2014
Correct Answer: (1) 2004

NMMS 2025-26 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER ( APTITUDE TEST) 91-130 MCQS

Scholastic Aptitude Test (MCQs 91-130)

91. When plants of same kind are grown at large scale in large area is known as:

  • (1) Crop
  • (2) Garden
  • (3) Field
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Crop

92. First step towards development of civilization is:

  • (1) Hunting
  • (2) Agriculture
  • (3) Exchange of Goods
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Agriculture

93. Which are Rabi crops?

  • (1) Kidney Beans, maize
  • (2) Groundnut, Rice
  • (3) Pigeon Peas, soybean
  • (4) Gram, lentils
Correct Answer: (4) Gram, lentils

94. Upto which depth the soil is very useful for crops?

  • (1) 35-40 Cm
  • (2) 40-45 cm
  • (3) 25-30 cm
  • (4) 30-35 cm
Correct Answer: (4) 30-35 cm

95. For storage of pulses and cereals the moisture content in the grains should not be more than?

  • (1) Not more than 20%
  • (2) Not more than 14%
  • (3) Not more than 25%
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Not more than 14%

96. M.S. Swaminathan is known as a ________ of India.

  • (1) Missile man of India
  • (2) Waterman of India
  • (3) Father of Green Revolution
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Father of Green Revolution

97. ________ is made from the fibers obtained from flax plant.

  • (1) Cotton
  • (2) Linen
  • (3) Bamboo
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Linen

98. Anthrax and Tuberculosis is caused by

  • (1) Virus
  • (2) Fungi
  • (3) Bacteria
  • (4) Protozoa
Correct Answer: (3) Bacteria

99. Which gas is obtained from natural gas to prepare urea?

  • (1) Nitrogen
  • (2) Oxygen
  • (3) Chlorine
  • (4) Hydrogen
Correct Answer: (4) Hydrogen

100. Black gold is another name of

  • (1) Petroleum
  • (2) Coal
  • (3) Coal tar
  • (4) Graphite
Correct Answer: (1) Petroleum

101. Goldsmiths blow which zone of flame for melting gold and silver?

  • (1) Innermost zone
  • (2) Outermost zone
  • (3) Least hot zone
  • (4) Middle zone
Correct Answer: (2) Outermost zone

102. What is the calorific value of CNG?

  • (1) 55000 kJ/Kg
  • (2) 60000 kJ/Kg
  • (3) 45000 kJ/Kg
  • (4) 50000 kJ/Kg
Correct Answer: (4) 50000 kJ/Kg

103. World wetland day is celebrated on

  • (1) February, 2
  • (2) March 21
  • (3) April, 22
  • (4) May 22
Correct Answer: (1) February, 2

104. Which of the following reproduce by budding?

  • (1) Yeast
  • (2) Amoeba
  • (3) Bacteria
  • (4) Paramecium
Correct Answer: (1) Yeast

105. Match correctly (States and National Parks):
1. Madhya Pradesh (A) Jim Corbett
2. Uttara Khand (B) Kanha
3. Gujarat (C) Gir
4. Assam (D) Kaziranga
5. Manipur

  • (1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1
  • (2) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1
  • (3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
  • (4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Correct Answer: (4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

106. Which of the following have maximum stages in life cycle?

  • (1) Frog
  • (2) Butterfly
  • (3) Cockroach
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Butterfly

107. Which type of friction is least?

  • (1) Static friction
  • (2) Sliding friction
  • (3) Rolling friction
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Rolling friction

108. Which of the following is a hermaphrodite organism?

  • (1) Frog
  • (2) Fish
  • (3) Tortoise
  • (4) Leeches
Correct Answer: (4) Leeches

109. Match Column A with Column B:
1. Oviparous (A) Process of producing young
2. Zygote (B) Asexual reproduction in Hydra
3. Reproduction (C) Fertilization in water
4. Frog (D) Sperm and egg fuse to form

  • (1) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2
  • (2) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
  • (3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-5
  • (4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5
Correct Answer: (1) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2

110. Adrenal glands are located on the top of the:

  • (1) Brain
  • (2) Kidneys
  • (3) Pancreas
  • (4) Thyroid
Correct Answer: (2) Kidneys

111. World No Tobacco day is celebrated on

  • (1) October, 24
  • (2) March, 8
  • (3) April, 24
  • (4) May 31
Correct Answer: (4) May 31

112. Which of the following is Non-Contact Force?

  • (1) Friction
  • (2) Muscular force
  • (3) Electrostatic force
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (3) Electrostatic force

113. Water in rivers flow due to force of

  • (1) Gravity
  • (2) Muscular force
  • (3) Electrostatic force
  • (4) Magnetic Force
Correct Answer: (1) Gravity

114. Treads are series of patterns made on tyres for

  • (1) Increase speed
  • (2) Increase friction
  • (3) Decrease friction
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Increase friction

115. Maximum displacement of the body from its mean position is called:

  • (1) Vibration
  • (2) Time period
  • (3) Frequency
  • (4) Amplitude
Correct Answer: (4) Amplitude

116. which animal communicate through Infrasonic.

  • (1) Rhinoceroses
  • (2) Dogs
  • (3) Dolphins
  • (4) Bats
Correct Answer: (1) Rhinoceroses

117. Malleus bone is a part of:

  • (1) Inner ear
  • (2) Outer ear
  • (3) Middle ear
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Middle ear

118. Which statement is false?

  • (1) Larynx is organ produce sound.
  • (2) Hertz is unit of frequency.
  • (3) Decible is unwanted sound.
  • (4) Flute is musical instrument.
Correct Answer: (3) Decible is unwanted sound.

119. Distilled water is a

  • (1) Poor Conductor
  • (2) Good Conductor
  • (3) Neutral
  • (4) Solution
Correct Answer: (1) Poor Conductor

120. A pendulum completes 64 vibration in 4 seconds. Calculate its frequency.

  • (1) 8 Hz.
  • (2) 16 Hz.
  • (3) 32 Hz.
  • (4) 64 Hz.
Correct Answer: (2) 16 Hz.

121. Which is a good conductor of electricity.

  • (1) Bakelite
  • (2) Rubber
  • (3) PVC
  • (4) Graphite
Correct Answer: (4) Graphite

122. Coating of superior metal over inferior metal using electric current is called:

  • (1) Galvanization
  • (2) Electroplating
  • (3) Chromium
  • (4) Electric cell
Correct Answer: (2) Electroplating

123. The speed of wind measured by

  • (1) Voltmeter
  • (2) Wind pane
  • (3) Ammeter
  • (4) Anemometer
Correct Answer: (4) Anemometer

124. Eye fluid present behind the lens in eyeball?

  • (1) Aquous humour
  • (2) Tears
  • (3) Vitreous Humour
  • (4) Both (1) and (2)
Correct Answer: (3) Vitreous Humour

125. Which of the following have compound eyes?

  • (1) Chameleon
  • (2) Butterflies
  • (3) Parrot
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Butterflies

126. Which part of the eye give colour to eyes?

  • (1) Cornea
  • (2) Retina
  • (3) Rod Cells
  • (4) Iris
Correct Answer: (4) Iris

127. Which statement is true?

  • (1) Cockroach can rotate their eyes
  • (2) Chameleon has compound eyes.
  • (3) Bat can fly at night but it can not see at night.
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Cockroach can rotate their eyes

128. The hormone whose deficiency may cause diabetes is:

  • (1) Estrogen
  • (2) Testosterone
  • (3) Thyroxine
  • (4) Insulin
Correct Answer: (4) Insulin

129. The fusion of sperm and egg produces:

  • (1) Zygote
  • (2) Gamete
  • (3) Embryo
  • (4) Oviduct
Correct Answer: (1) Zygote

130. Which of the following cannot definitely be called living or non living?

  • (1) Bacteria
  • (2) Algae
  • (3) Virus
  • (4) Fungi
Correct Answer: (3) Virus

NMMS 2025-26 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER ( MENTAL ABILITY TEST) 51-90 MCQS

Mental Ability Test (MCQs 51-90)

51. From his house, Ashok went 25 km to North. Then, he turned towards West and covered distance of 15 km. Then, turned towards South and covered distance of 10 km. Finally, turning to east, he covered distance of 15 km. In which direction is he from his house.

  • (1) North
  • (2) South
  • (3) West
  • (4) South-West
Correct Answer: (1) North

52. Kavita walked 5 km from her house facing East and walked 3 km after turning to her Right, then tell in which direction her house is from herself?

  • (1) North-East
  • (2) South-West
  • (3) North-West
  • (4) South-East
Correct Answer: (3) North-West

53. The age of my father is three times of my age. When my sister was born my father was 24 years old. If my sister is 9 years old. What is my age?

  • (1) 13 years
  • (2) 11 years
  • (3) 12 years
  • (4) 10 years
Correct Answer: (2) 11 years

54. A man walks along a circle having 7 km as radius. If he completes one round then how many K.M. he walked?

  • (1) 22 km
  • (2) 28 km
  • (3) 44 km
  • (4) 49 km
Correct Answer: (3) 44 km

55. In a class of 42 students, Anil rank is 16th from the bottom. What is his rank from the top?

  • (1) 25th
  • (2) 26th
  • (3) 24th
  • (4) 27th
Correct Answer: (4) 27th

56. If you are 20th in a row from either side, then how many persons are there in row?

  • (1) 39
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 41
  • (4) 21
Correct Answer: (1) 39
Direction (Question 57-58): Read the following statement and answer the questions. Five friends are standing in a row facing south. Surjit is to the immediate right of Ashok. Rakesh is between Pankaj and Suresh. Suresh is between Surjit and Rakesh.

57. Who is in the middle?

  • (1) Ashok
  • (2) Suresh
  • (3) Rakesh
  • (4) Pankaj
Correct Answer: (2) Suresh

58. Who is standing left to Surjit?

  • (1) Ashok
  • (2) Suresh
  • (3) Rakesh
  • (4) Pankaj
Correct Answer: (2) Suresh

59. How many P are there in the following letter series which are immediately preceeded by R but not followed by S?
PQSRMPMSRPSRPTQPMRPNRPS

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four
Correct Answer: (2) Two

60. Pointing to a boy, Rahul said, "The boy playing cricket is the son of my father's wife. How that boy related to Rahul?

  • (1) Uncle
  • (2) Cousin
  • (3) Brother
  • (4) Nephew
Correct Answer: (3) Brother

61. A is D's brother. D is B's father. Both B and C are sisters. How is A related to C

  • (1) Daughter
  • (2) Granddaughter
  • (3) Father
  • (4) Uncle
Correct Answer: (4) Uncle

62. If 123456789 is divided by 4 then the remainder will be?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (2) 1

63. How many squares are there in the given figure?

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (3) 15

64. How many triangle are there in the given figure?

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (4) 10

65. How many triangle are there in the given figure?

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 20
Correct Answer: (3) 16

66. How many cubes are there in the given figure?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 23
  • (4) 22
Correct Answer: (1) 25

67. If the clock is 12:05 when viewed in a mirror, then what is the real time in the clock?

  • (1) 11.05
  • (2) 10.55
  • (3) 11.55
  • (4) 10.05
Correct Answer: (3) 11.55

68. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of clock when time is 8.30?

  • (1) 90°
  • (2) 75°
  • (3) 60°
  • (4) 85°
Correct Answer: (2) 75°

69. If it is Saturday on January 1, 2000 then January 1, 2001 would have been?

  • (1) Monday
  • (2) Sunday
  • (3) Tuesday
  • (4) Friday
Correct Answer: (1) Monday

70. If December 7 is Wednesday then what was the day on December 31 of the same year?

  • (1) Thursday
  • (2) Tuesday
  • (3) Wednesday
  • (4) Saturday
Correct Answer: (4) Saturday
Direction (Question 71-73): Find the missing '?' number:

71. [Based on numerical grid pattern provided in source]

  • (1) 52
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 38
Correct Answer: (2) 28

72. [Based on numerical diagram pattern provided in source]

  • (1) 42
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 65
  • (4) 64
Correct Answer: (2) 75

73. [Based on numerical diagram pattern provided in source]

  • (1) 84
  • (2) 164
  • (3) 122
  • (4) 81
Correct Answer: (4) 81
Direction (Question 74-77): Chose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a) (b) (c) and (d) when the mirror is held at AB

74. [Figure X: Triangle with internal markings]

  • (1) (a)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (2) (b)

75. [Figure X: Rectangular frame with geometric symbols]

  • (1) (b)
  • (2) (a)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (2) (a)

76. [Figure X: Geometric line assembly with circle and X]

  • (1) (d)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (a)
Correct Answer: (3) (c)

77. [Figure X: Spade-like symbol with shaded regions]

  • (1) (a)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (1) (a)
Direction (Question 78-80): In each of the following questions choose the correct water image of figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a) (b) (c) and (d) assume that water is along AB.

78. [Figure X: Curved line with dot and letters N, H]

  • (1) (c)
  • (2) (a)
  • (3) (d)
  • (4) (b)
Correct Answer: (2) (a)

79. [Figure X: Square containing a triangle and external circle attachment]

  • (1) (c)
  • (2) (d)
  • (3) (a)
  • (4) (b)
Correct Answer: (2) (d)

80. [Figure X: Vertical arrow with geometric base]

  • (1) (c)
  • (2) (d)
  • (3) (a)
  • (4) (b)
Correct Answer: (1) (c)
Direction (Question 81-83): Four figure marked (a) (b) (c) and (d). Three are similar in certain manner, one figure is not like other. Choose the figure which is different from others.

81. [Set of geometric figures with circles on corners]

  • (1) (d)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (a)
Correct Answer: (1) (d)

82. [Set of grid-like patterns with dots]

  • (1) (a)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (3) (c)

83. [Letters: V, W, M, W]

  • (1) (c)
  • (2) (a)
  • (3) (d)
  • (4) (b)
Correct Answer: (2) (a)
Direction (Question 84-87): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (a) (b)(c) and (d) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

84. [Figure X: Embedded geometric shape]

  • (1) (a)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (1) (a)

85. [Figure X: Geometric line pattern]

  • (1) (b)
  • (2) (a)
  • (3) (d)
  • (4) (c)
Correct Answer: (2) (a)

86. [Figure X: N-shaped pattern]

  • (1) (a)
  • (2) (b)
  • (3) (c)
  • (4) (d)
Correct Answer: (3) (c)

87. [Figure X: Rectangular sub-component]

  • (1) (b)
  • (2) (a)
  • (3) (d)
  • (4) (c)
Correct Answer: (4) (c)
Direction (Question 88-90): In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives (1) (2) (3) and (4) which was placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

88. [Pattern completion question]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1)

89. [Pattern completion question]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (3)

90. [Pattern completion question]

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)

NMMS 2026 QUESTION PAPER SOLVED

Mental Ability Test (MCQs 1-50)

Direction (Questions 1-10): Find the correct answer from options to complete the number/letter series.

1. 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, ___

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 29
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 35
Correct Answer: (2) 29

2. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ___

  • (1) 27
  • (2) 37
  • (3) 31
  • (4) 29
Correct Answer: (4) 29

3. 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, ___, 48

  • (1) 35
  • (2) 29
  • (3) 37
  • (4) 41
Correct Answer: (1) 35

4. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ___, 50

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 35
  • (3) 36
  • (4) 37
Correct Answer: (4) 37

5. 16, 33, 65, 131, ___, 523

  • (1) 361
  • (2) 261
  • (3) 461
  • (4) 443
Correct Answer: (2) 261

6. 7, 11, 13, 19, ___, 29

  • (1) 21
  • (2) 23
  • (3) 25
  • (4) 27
Correct Answer: (2) 23

7. 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ___

  • (1) 61
  • (2) 51
  • (3) 57
  • (4) 63
Correct Answer: (1) 61

8. ABCD, BCDA, CDAB, ___

  • (1) DADC
  • (2) DABC
  • (3) DBAC
  • (4) DACB
Correct Answer: (2) DABC

9. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ___, MLNA

  • (1) OLPA
  • (2) KLMA
  • (3) LLMA
  • (4) KLLA
Correct Answer: (4) KLLA

10. N5V, K7T, ___, E14P, B19N

  • (1) H9R
  • (2) H9Q
  • (3) H10R
  • (4) I10R
Correct Answer: (2) H9Q
Direction (Questions 11-20): Find the wrong/odd number or term.

11. 19, 23, 27, 29, 31

  • (1) 19
  • (2) 23
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 31
Correct Answer: (3) 27

12. 196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 82

  • (1) 144
  • (2) 121
  • (3) 196
  • (4) 82
Correct Answer: (4) 82

13. 9, 14, 19, 25, 32, 40

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 25
Correct Answer: (4) 25

14. 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 45
  • (4) 70
Correct Answer: (2) 22

15. KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, CY16

  • (1) KM5
  • (2) IP8
  • (3) EV14
  • (4) CY16
Correct Answer: (4) CY16

16. Identify the odd one:

  • (1) Telangana
  • (2) Tamilnadu
  • (3) Gujarat
  • (4) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (1) Telangana

17. Identify the odd one:

  • (1) Rigveda
  • (2) Yajurveda
  • (3) Samveda
  • (4) Ayurveda
Correct Answer: (4) Ayurveda

18. Identify the odd one:

  • (1) Football
  • (2) Hockey
  • (3) Badminton
  • (4) Cricket
Correct Answer: (3) Badminton

19. Identify the odd one:

  • (1) Green
  • (2) Blue
  • (3) White
  • (4) Yellow
Correct Answer: (3) White

20. Identify the odd pair:

  • (1) 5-11
  • (2) 13-17
  • (3) 37-43
  • (4) 9-19
Correct Answer: (4) 9-19
Direction (Questions 21-23): Complete the letter series pattern.

21. abcdaabbccddaa ___ bbb ccddd

  • (1) bbdac
  • (2) bbcad
  • (3) bbcda
  • (4) acbcc
Correct Answer: (1) bbdac

22. nmmmmmnnnnm ___ amman ___ mnum

  • (1) nmmn
  • (2) nmnm
  • (3) mnnm
  • (4) nnmm
Correct Answer: (2) nmnm

23. snnxxmnxxmnxmx ___ smxsmnxsmnsmx

  • (1) nxxms
  • (2) smnxx
  • (3) nmxxn
  • (4) mssxn
Correct Answer: (2) smnxx
Direction (Questions 24-27): Choose the correct option to replace '?'.

24. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : (?)

  • (1) ADGF
  • (2) HDGE
  • (3) HDGF
  • (4) HEGF
Correct Answer: (3) HDGF

25. Circle : Circumference :: Square : (?)

  • (1) Perimeter
  • (2) Area
  • (3) Diagonal
  • (4) Volume
Correct Answer: (1) Perimeter

26. 17 : 52 :: 1 : (?)

  • (1) 53
  • (2) 49
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4

27. 6 : 18 :: 4 : (?)

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (2) 8

28. If '-' means 'x', 'x' means '+', '+' means '-' and '÷' means '+', find value of 18 x 3 + 4 - 2 ÷ 4:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 18
Correct Answer: (3) 19

29. If a means '÷', b means '+', c means '-', and d means 'x', then value of 24a 6d 4b 9c 8:

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 19
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 17
Correct Answer: (4) 17

30. If 'MARCH' is coded as '41938', then how can 'JULY' be coded?

  • (1) 3271
  • (2) 1337
  • (3) 52049
  • (4) 30827
Correct Answer: (4) 30827

31. If 'REASON' is coded as '5' and 'BELIEVED' as '7', then what is the code for 'GOVERNMENT'?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 9

32. In a certain code 'SOBER' is written as 'RNADQ'. How can 'LOTUS' be written?

  • (1) KNSTR
  • (2) MPUWT
  • (3) KMSTR
  • (4) LMRST
Correct Answer: (1) KNSTR

33. If 'cook' is called 'butler', 'butler' is 'manager', 'manager' is 'teacher', 'teacher' is 'clerk', and 'clerk' is 'headmaster', who will teach in a class?

  • (1) Headmaster
  • (2) Clerk
  • (3) Teacher
  • (4) Cook
Correct Answer: (2) Clerk

34. Doctor is related to Diagnosis in the same way as Judge is related to:

  • (1) Judgment
  • (2) Punishment
  • (3) Lawyer
  • (4) Court
Correct Answer: (1) Judgment

35. Which word cannot be formed from 'LEGALIZATION'?

  • (1) NATAL
  • (2) ALEGATION
  • (3) GALLANT
  • (4) ALERT
Correct Answer: (4) ALERT

36. Which word can be formed from 'PREMONITION'?

  • (1) ACTION
  • (2) NATION
  • (3) MONITOR
  • (4) REMOVE
Correct Answer: (3) MONITOR
Direction (Questions 37-39): In a code language, (a) 'pit dar na' = 'you are good', (b) 'dar tols pa' = 'good and bad', (c) 'tim na tols' = 'they are bad'.

37. What is the code for 'they'?

  • (1) pa
  • (2) pit
  • (3) tim
  • (4) na
Correct Answer: (3) tim

38. What is the code for 'and'?

  • (1) pa
  • (2) pit
  • (3) dar
  • (4) tols
Correct Answer: (1) pa

39. What is the code for 'you'?

  • (1) pit
  • (2) pa
  • (3) tols
  • (4) dar
Correct Answer: (1) pit
Direction (Questions 40-43): Based on the Venn diagram of students passing subjects.

40. How many students pass in all subjects?

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (3) 6

41. How many students passed in English and Maths both subjects only?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (2) 3

42. How many students passed in Hindi only?

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (4) 16

43. How many students passed in Maths only?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (3) 13
Direction (Questions 44-46): Based on dice positions.

44. Which number is opposite of 4?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (3) 2

45. Which number is opposite of 5?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 3

46. Which number is opposite of 1?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (4) 6

47. Which diagram represents: Vehicle, Car, Bus?

  • (1) A
  • (2) E
  • (3) D
  • (4) C
Correct Answer: (4) C (Two separate entities within a larger group)

48. Which diagram represents: Planet, Earth, Sun?

  • (1) A
  • (2) D
  • (3) E
  • (4) B
Correct Answer: (2) D (One entity inside another, third is separate)

49. Which word is third when arranged in dictionary order?

  • (1) Directional
  • (2) Directory
  • (3) Directive
  • (4) Direction
Correct Answer: (3) Directive

50. Arrange in meaningful sequence: (i) House (ii) Street (iii) Room (iv) City (v) District

  • (1) ii, iii, i, iv, v
  • (2) iii, i, ii, iv, v
  • (3) iv, i, iii, ii, v
  • (4) iii, i, ii, v, iv
Correct Answer: (2) iii, i, ii, iv, v

PSTSE Class-X 2025-26 SCIENCE ANSWER KEY

Verified PSTSE Class-X 2025-26 MCQs (91-130)

PSTSE Examination 2025-26

Part II: Scholastic Aptitude Test (Science)

91. Butane with the molecular formula C4H10 has:
  • (1) 7 Covalent bonds
  • (2) 9 Covalent bonds
  • (3) 11 Covalent bonds
  • (4) 13 Covalent bonds
Correct Answer: (4) 13 Covalent bonds
92. Which enzyme present in pancreatic juice?
  • (1) Bile
  • (2) Trypsin
  • (3) Amino Acid
  • (4) Glycerol
Correct Answer: (2) Trypsin
93. In Fleming's left hand rule second finger point the direction of: [Image of Fleming's left hand rule]
  • (1) Magnetic field
  • (2) Motion/force
  • (3) Current
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (3) Current
94. Hair like structure present in respiratory tract is called:
  • (1) Alveoli
  • (2) Cilia
  • (3) Blood Vessel
  • (4) Both (1) and (3)
Correct Answer: (2) Cilia
95. The urinary bladder is muscular, it is under:
  • (1) Nervous control
  • (2) Muscular control
  • (3) Both (1) and (2)
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Nervous control
96. Anodising is a:
  • (1) oxide layer on silver
  • (2) oxide layer on copper
  • (3) oxide layer on gold
  • (4) oxide layer on aluminium
Correct Answer: (4) oxide layer on aluminium
97. Noble Gas:
  • (1) Nitrogen, Fluorine
  • (2) Helium, Argon
  • (3) Iodine, Chlorine
  • (4) Hydrogen, Oxygen
Correct Answer: (2) Helium, Argon
98. Complete the chemical reaction: CH3-CH2OH → (Hot conc. H2SO4) ?
  • (1) CH4=CH2+H2O
  • (2) CH2=CH4+H2O
  • (3) CH2=CH2+H4O
  • (4) CH2=CH2+H2O
Correct Answer: (4) CH2=CH2+H2O
99. Litmus solution is a purple dye, it is extracted from:
  • (1) bacteria
  • (2) lichen
  • (3) Virus
  • (4) protozoa
Correct Answer: (2) lichen
100. Atmosphere of Venus is a made up of:
  • (1) clouds of dust
  • (2) clouds of water
  • (3) clouds of sulphuric acid
  • (4) clouds of nitrogen
Correct Answer: (3) clouds of sulphuric acid
101. Formula of Bleaching powder is:
  • (1) Ca(OH)2
  • (2) Na2CO3
  • (3) NaHCO3
  • (4) CaOCl2
Correct Answer: (4) CaOCl2
102. Match the column I with Column II:
Column IColumn II
1. C5H12A. Ethane
2. C4H10B. Propane
3. C3H8C. Butane
4. C2H6D. Pentane
  • (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • (2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  • (3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
  • (4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-2
Correct Answer: (2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
103. The xylem in plants are responsible for:
  • (1) transport of water
  • (2) transport of food
  • (3) transport of amino acid
  • (4) transport of O2
Correct Answer: (1) transport of water
104. The gap between two neurons is called a: [Image of a synapse between two neurons]
  • (1) dendrite
  • (2) synapse
  • (3) axon
  • (4) impulse
Correct Answer: (2) synapse
105. Kala-azar is caused by:
  • (1) leishmania
  • (2) plasmodium
  • (3) planaria
  • (4) hydra
Correct Answer: (1) leishmania
106. Match the column I with Column II:
Column IColumn II
A. spirogyra1. regeneration
B. planaria2. fragmentation
C. hydra3. vegetative propagation
D. bryophyllum4. budding
  • (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • (2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  • (3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
  • (4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Correct Answer: (4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
107. Identify the individual whose sex is not genetically determined:
  • (1) Frog
  • (2) star fish
  • (3) snail
  • (4) Both (1) and (2)
Correct Answer: (3) snail
108. Which mirror is fitted in the wall of Agra fort facing the Taj Mahal:
  • (1) convex mirror
  • (2) concave mirror
  • (3) plane mirror
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (1) convex mirror
109. The S.I. unit of power of lens is:
  • (1) Watt
  • (2) Newton
  • (3) dioptre
  • (4) metre
Correct Answer: (3) dioptre
110. Twinkling of stars is due to phenomenon of:
  • (1) atmospheric refraction
  • (2) scattering of light
  • (3) dispersion of light
  • (4) tyndall effect
Correct Answer: (1) atmospheric refraction
111. White silver chloride decomposes into silver and chlorine in sunlight then its colour becomes:
  • (1) black
  • (2) blue
  • (3) yellow
  • (4) grey
Correct Answer: (4) grey
112. Tooth decay starts when the pH of mouth is:
  • (1) < 5.5
  • (2) > 5.5
  • (3) Both (1) and (2)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) < 5.5
113. Which metal is most reactive?
  • (1) zinc
  • (2) Copper
  • (3) mercury
  • (4) magnesium
Correct Answer: (4) magnesium
114. The correct structural formula of Propyne is:
  • (1) Option 1 (structure)
  • (2) Option 2 (structure)
  • (3) Option 3 (structure)
  • (4) Option 4 (structure)
Correct Answer: (3) Option 3 (H-C≡C-CH3 structure)
115. Guard cells shrink causing following function:
  • (1) opening of stomata
  • (2) Closing of stomata
  • (3) both (1) and (2)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Closing of stomata
116. Carbon and its compounds are major sources of:
  • (1) salt
  • (2) water
  • (3) fuels
  • (4) Both (1) and (2)
Correct Answer: (3) fuels
117. CaCO3(s) → (Heat) CaO(s) + CO2(g):
  • (1) Combination of reaction
  • (2) Double displacement reaction
  • (3) Displacement of reaction
  • (4) Decomposition of reaction
Correct Answer: (4) Decomposition of reaction
118. Image formed by concave mirror when object is between C and F is:
  • (1) diminished
  • (2) same size
  • (3) enlarge
  • (4) none of these
Correct Answer: (3) enlarge
119. The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles is known as:
  • (1) dispersion of light
  • (2) Tyndall effect
  • (3) Refraction of light
  • (4) Both (1) and (3)
Correct Answer: (2) Tyndall effect
120. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1m is 26Ω at 20°C. If diameter is 0.3 mm, resistivity is:
  • (1) 1.84 x 10-4 Ω m
  • (2) 1.84 x 12-4 Ω m
  • (3) 1.84 x 12-6 Ω m
  • (4) 1.84 x 10-6 Ω m
Correct Answer: (4) 1.84 x 10-6 Ω m
121. Concave lens focal length 15cm. Image at 10cm. Object distance:
  • (1) u = +40 cm
  • (2) u = -30 cm
  • (3) u = +50 cm
  • (4) u = -60 cm
Correct Answer: (2) u = -30 cm
122. Melting point of chloroform (CHCl3):
  • (1) 290k
  • (2) 156k
  • (3) 209k
  • (4) 90k
Correct Answer: (3) 209k
123. Wonder of Ancient Indian metallurgy is:
  • (1) Iron Pillar
  • (2) Qutub Minar
  • (3) Taj Mehal
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Iron Pillar
124. The sensitive plant use electro-chemical means to convey information from:
  • (1) plant to plant
  • (2) cell to cell
  • (3) Both (1) and (2)
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) cell to cell
125. Function of Gibberellins is:
  • (1) growth of fruit
  • (2) growth of seed
  • (3) growth of stem
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (3) growth of stem
126. What is the direction of magnetic field lines inside the magnet?
  • (1) South pole to South pole
  • (2) North pole to South pole
  • (3) North pole to North pole
  • (4) South pole to North pole
Correct Answer: (4) South pole to North pole
127. Quicklime is used in manufacturing of:
  • (1) soap
  • (2) baking soda
  • (3) cement
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (3) cement
128. Which gas is used in flush bag of Chips?
  • (1) Nitrogen
  • (2) Hydrogen
  • (3) Oxygen
  • (4) Helium
Correct Answer: (1) Nitrogen
129. Electric current produces:
  • (1) Electric field
  • (2) Magnetic field
  • (3) Domestic circuit
  • (4) All of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Magnetic field
130. Acidic and basic solution in water conduct electricity because they produces:
  • (1) Hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions
  • (2) Oxygen ions and oxide ions
  • (3) Nitrogen ions and nitrate ions
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions

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