PSEB SEPTEMBER EXAM 2026: CLASS 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE SAMPLE PAPER SET 1

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਕੂਲ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਬੋਰਡ (PSEB)

ਸਤੰਬਰ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ (September Examination 2026)

ਜਮਾਤ: 12ਵੀਂ | ਵਿਸ਼ਾ: ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਸ਼ਾਸਤਰ (Class 12th Political Science)

ਸਮਾਂ: 3 ਘੰਟੇ ਲਿਖਤੀ ਪ੍ਰੀਖਿਆ: 80 ਅੰਕ ਕੁੱਲ ਅੰਕ: 100

ਜ਼ਰੂਰੀ ਹਦਾਇਤਾਂ:

1. ਸਾਰੇ ਭਾਗ (ੳ, ਅ, ੲ, ਸ, ਅਤੇ ਹ) ਲਾਜ਼ਮੀ ਹਨ।
2. ਭਾਗ-ੳ (ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਨੰ: 1) ਵਿੱਚ 10 ਬਹੁ-ਵਿਕਲਪੀ ਉਪ-ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਹਨ, ਹਰੇਕ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 1 ਅੰਕ ਦਾ ਹੈ (10 × 1 = 10 ਅੰਕ)।
3. ਭਾਗ-ਅ (ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਨੰ: 2) ਵਿੱਚ 10 ਵਸਤੂਨਿਸ਼ਠ ਉਪ-ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਹਨ, ਹਰੇਕ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 1 ਅੰਕ ਦਾ ਹੈ (10 × 1 = 10 ਅੰਕ)।
4. ਭਾਗ-ੲ (ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਨੰ: 3) ਵਿੱਚ ਦੋ ਉਪ-ਭਾਗ (i) ਸਰੋਤ-ਅਧਾਰਿਤ ਅਤੇ (ii) ਕੇਸ ਸਟੱਡੀ-ਅਧਾਰਿਤ ਹਨ (12 × 1 = 12 ਅੰਕ)।
5. ਭਾਗ-ਸ (ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਨੰ: 4 ਤੋਂ 12) ਵਿੱਚ ਕੁੱਲ 9 ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਵਿੱਚੋਂ ਕੋਈ 6 ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਹੱਲ ਕਰੋ। ਉੱਤਰ ਸੀਮਾ 60–75 ਸ਼ਬਦ ਹੈ (6 × 4 = 24 ਅੰਕ)।
6. ਭਾਗ-ਹ (ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ ਨੰ: 13 ਤੋਂ 15) ਵਿੱਚ ਕੁੱਲ 3 ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 100% ਅੰਦਰੂਨੀ ਛੋਟ ਵਾਲੇ ਹਨ। ਉੱਤਰ ਸੀਮਾ 125–150 ਸ਼ਬਦ ਹੈ (3 × 8 = 24 ਅੰਕ)।

ਭਾਗ-ੳ (SECTION-A) : ਬਹੁ-ਵਿਕਲਪੀ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 10 × 1 = 10 ਅੰਕ

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1.1 ਤੁਲਨਾਤਮਕ ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਦਾ ਪਿਤਾਮਾ ਕਿਸ ਵਿਦਵਾਨ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਹਾ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਪਲੈਟੋ

(ਅ) ਕਾਰਲ ਮਾਰਕਸ

(ੲ) ਅਰਸਤੂ

(ਸ) ਰਾਬਰਟ ਡਾਹਲ

1.2 ਹੇਠ ਲਿਖਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚੋਂ ਕਿਹੜਾ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸਮਾਜੀਕਰਨ ਦਾ ਸਾਧਨ (ਏਜੰਟ) ਨਹੀਂ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਪਰਿਵਾਰ

(ਅ) ਵਿੱਦਿਅਕ ਸੰਸਥਾਵਾਂ

(ੲ) ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰਕ ਪ੍ਰੋਗਰਾਮ

(ਸ) ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਦਲ

1.3 ਰੇਲ ਹਾਦਸੇ ਤੋਂ ਬਾਅਦ ਨੈਤਿਕ ਜ਼ਿੰਮੇਵਾਰੀ ਲੈਂਦਿਆਂ ਅਸਤੀਫ਼ਾ ਦੇਣ ਦੀ ਕਾਰਵਾਈ ਰਾਹੀਂ ਲਾਲ ਬਹਾਦਰ ਸ਼ਾਸਤਰੀ ਜੀ ਨੇ ਕਿਸ ਤਰ੍ਹਾਂ ਦੇ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ ਦੀ ਨੀਂਹ ਰੱਖੀ?

(ੳ) ਲਾਪਰਵਾਹ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ

(ਅ) ਗ਼ੈਰ-ਜ਼ਿੰਮੇਵਾਰ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ

(ੲ) ਜ਼ਿੰਮੇਵਾਰ ਅਤੇ ਜਵਾਬਦੇਹ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ

(ਸ) ਅਧੀਨ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ

1.4 ਡੇਵਿਡ ਈਸਟਨ ਨੇ ਆਪਣੀ ਪ੍ਰਸਿੱਧ ਪੁਸਤਕ 'The Political System' ਕਿਸ ਸਾਲ ਪ੍ਰਕਾਸ਼ਿਤ ਕੀਤੀ ਸੀ?

(ੳ) 1947

(ਅ) 1953

(ੲ) 1966

(ਸ) 1975

1.5 ਇੱਕ ਫ਼ਿਲਮ ਨਿਰਮਾਤਾ ਭਰੂਣ ਹੱਤਿਆ ਦੀ ਗੰਭੀਰ ਸਮੱਸਿਆ 'ਤੇ ਇੱਕ ਫ਼ਿਲਮ ਬਣਾਉਂਦਾ ਹੈ, ਜਿਸ ਨੂੰ ਦੇਖ ਕੇ ਸਮਾਜ ਵਿੱਚ ਇਸ ਕੁਰੀਤੀ ਵਿਰੁੱਧ ਇੱਕ ਮਜ਼ਬੂਤ ਵਿਚਾਰ ਪੈਦਾ ਹੁੰਦਾ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਲੋਕ-ਮਤ ਦੇ ਨਿਰਮਾਣ ਦੇ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸਾਧਨ ਦੀ ਉਦਾਹਰਨ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਰਾਜਨੀਤਕ ਦਲ

(ਅ) ਪ੍ਰੈੱਸ

(ੲ) ਸਿਨੇਮਾ

(ਸ) ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਸੰਸਥਾਵਾਂ

1.6 ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਆਧਾਰ 'ਤੇ ਕੀਤੀ ਜਾਣ ਵਾਲੀ ਭਰਤੀ ਵਿਧੀ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਹੜਾ ਸਿਸਟਮ ਕਿਹਾ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਯੋਗਤਾ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ (Merit System)

(ਅ) ਖ਼ਰਾਬ ਸਿਸਟਮ (Spoil System)

(ੲ) ਖੁੱਲ੍ਹੀ ਭਰਤੀ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ

(ਸ) ਤਕਨੀਕੀ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ

1.7 ਹੇਠ ਲਿਖੇ ਕਥਨਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਵਿਚਾਰੋ:
1. ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਇੱਕ ਮੈਂਬਰੀ ਚੋਣ ਖੇਤਰ ਦਾ ਸਿਧਾਂਤ ਲਾਗੂ ਹੈ।
2. ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਖੇਤਰੀ ਪ੍ਰਤੀਨਿਧਤਾ ਦੇ ਸਿਧਾਂਤ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਦੇਸ਼ ਨੂੰ ਵੱਖ-ਵੱਖ ਚੋਣ ਹਲਕਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਵੰਡਿਆ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ।

(ੳ) ਸਿਰਫ਼ ਕਥਨ 1 ਸਹੀ ਹੈ

(ਅ) ਸਿਰਫ਼ ਕਥਨ 2 ਸਹੀ ਹੈ

(ੲ) ਦੋਵੇਂ ਕਥਨ ਸਹੀ ਹਨ

(ਸ) ਦੋਵੇਂ ਕਥਨ ਗ਼ਲਤ ਹਨ

1.8 ਉਹ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਦਲ ਜੋ ਮਾਰਕਸਵਾਦੀ ਵਿਚਾਰਧਾਰਾ ਵਿੱਚ ਵਿਸ਼ਵਾਸ ਰੱਖਦੇ ਹਨ, ਉਹਨਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਕੀ ਕਿਹਾ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਸੱਜੇ-ਪੱਖੀ ਦਲ

(ਅ) ਖੱਬੇ-ਪੱਖੀ ਦਲ

(ੲ) ਕੇਂਦਰਵਾਦੀ ਦਲ

(ਸ) ਫ਼ਾਸੀਵਾਦੀ ਦਲ

1.9 ਆਪਣੇ ਉਦੇਸ਼ਾਂ ਦੀ ਪ੍ਰਾਪਤੀ ਲਈ ਦਬਾਓ ਸਮੂਹ ਆਮ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਹੇਠ ਲਿਖਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚੋਂ ਕਿਹੜੀ ਵਿਧੀ ਨਹੀਂ ਅਪਣਾਉਂਦੇ?

(ੳ) ਹੜਤਾਲ ਕਰਨਾ

(ਅ) ਚੋਣ ਲੜਨਾ

(ੲ) ਲਾਬੀਇੰਗ ਕਰਨਾ

(ਸ) ਮੰਗ-ਪੱਤਰ ਦੇਣਾ

1.10 ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦ (Liberalism) ਸ਼ਬਦ ਲਾਤੀਨੀ ਭਾਸ਼ਾ ਦੇ ਮੂਲ ਸ਼ਬਦ 'Liberalis' ਤੋਂ ਲਿਆ ਗਿਆ ਹੈ, ਜਿਸਦਾ ਸ਼ਾਬਦਿਕ ਅਰਥ ਕੀ ਹੈ?

(ੳ) ਸਮਾਜਿਕ ਵਿਅਕਤੀ

(ਅ) ਆਰਥਿਕ ਵਿਅਕਤੀ

(ੲ) ਸੁਤੰਤਰ ਵਿਅਕਤੀ

(ਸ) ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਵਿਅਕਤੀ

ਭਾਗ-ਅ (SECTION-B) : ਵਸਤੂਨਿਸ਼ਠ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 10 × 1 = 10 ਅੰਕ

2.1 ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਸਰਵ-ਉੱਚ ਅਦਾਲਤ ਦੇ ਕਿਸ ਸਾਬਕਾ ਮੁੱਖ ਜੱਜ ਨੇ ਗ਼ਰੀਬਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਨਿਆਂ ਦਿਵਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਜਨਹਿੱਤ ਪਟੀਸ਼ਨ (PIL) ਦੀ ਸ਼ੁਰੂਆਤ ਕੀਤੀ ਸੀ?

2.2 ਸਹੀ ਜਾਂ ਗ਼ਲਤ ਦੱਸੋ: "ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸਮਾਜੀਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ ਵਿਅਕਤੀ ਦੀ ਸੋਚ ਨੂੰ ਸੀਮਿਤ ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ।"

2.3 ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ (Culture) ਸ਼ਬਦ ਲਾਤੀਨੀ ਭਾਸ਼ਾ ਦੇ ਕਿਸ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਤੋਂ ਬਣਿਆ ਹੈ?

2.4 ਡੇਵਿਡ ਈਸਟਨ ਦੇ ਮਾਡਲ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਲੋਕਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਮੰਗਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਜ਼ਰੂਰਤਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਸ ਨਾਮ ਨਾਲ ਜਾਣਿਆ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

2.5 ਖ਼ਾਲੀ ਥਾਂ ਭਰੋ: ਸੁਅੱਸਥ ਲੋਕ ਮਤ ਦਾ ਮੁੱਖ ਉਦੇਸ਼ ਸਮੁੱਚੇ ਸਮਾਜ ਦੀ ________ ਹੁੰਦਾ ਹੈ।

2.6 ਨੌਕਰਸ਼ਾਹੀ ਜਾਂ ਬਿਊਰੋਕ੍ਰੇਸੀ (Bureaucracy) ਸ਼ਬਦ ਫ਼ਰਾਂਸੀਸੀ ਭਾਸ਼ਾ ਦੇ ਕਿਸ ਮੂਲ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਤੋਂ ਬਣਿਆ ਹੈ ਜਿਸਦਾ ਅਰਥ 'ਡੈਸਕ ਜਾਂ ਲਿਖਣ ਵਾਲੀ ਮੇਜ਼' ਹੈ?

2.7 ਭਾਰਤ ਦੇ ਪਹਿਲੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਚੋਣ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ (Chief Election Commissioner) ਕੌਣ ਸਨ?

2.8 ਕਿਸੇ ਇੱਕ ਅਜਿਹੇ ਦੇਸ਼ ਦਾ ਨਾਮ ਲਿਖੋ ਜਿੱਥੇ ਇੱਕ-ਦਲ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ (Single Party System) ਪਾਈ ਜਾਂਦੀ ਹੈ।

2.9 ਸਹੀ ਜਾਂ ਗ਼ਲਤ ਦੱਸੋ: "ਦਬਾਓ ਸਮੂਹ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਉੱਤੇ ਆਪਣਾ ਕੰਟਰੋਲ ਸਥਾਪਿਤ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਚੋਣਾਂ ਲੜਦੇ ਹਨ।"

2.10 ਪ੍ਰੰਪਰਾਵਾਦੀ ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦੀ ਚਿੰਤਕਾਂ (ਜਿਵੇਂ ਜੌਹਨ ਲੌਕ) ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਰਾਜ ਕਿਸ ਪ੍ਰਕਾਰ ਦੀ ਸੰਸਥਾ ਹੈ?

ਭਾਗ-ੲ (SECTION-C) : ਸਰੋਤ-ਅਧਾਰਿਤ ਅਤੇ ਕੇਸ ਸਟੱਡੀ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 12 × 1 = 12 ਅੰਕ

3 (i) ਹੇਠਾਂ ਦਿੱਤੇ ਸਰੋਤ-ਅਧਾਰਿਤ ਪਹਿਰੇ ਨੂੰ ਪੜ੍ਹੋ ਅਤੇ ਪੁੱਛੇ ਗਏ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦੇ ਉੱਤਰ ਦਿਓ:

"ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ 1990ਵੇਂ ਦੇ ਦਹਾਕੇ ਵਿੱਚ ਭਾਰਤੀ ਅਰਥਵਿਵਸਥਾ ਦਾ ਡਾਂਵਾਡੋਲ ਹੋਣ ਕਾਰਨ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਕ ਢਾਂਚੇ ਵਿੱਚ ਸੰਸਥਾਗਤ ਤਬਦੀਲੀਆਂ ਕਰਨੀਆਂ ਪਈਆਂ ਅਤੇ ਦੇਸ਼ ਵਿੱਚ ਨਵੀਂ ਆਰਥਿਕ ਨੀਤੀ-1991 (ਉਦਾਰੀਕਰਨ, ਨਿੱਜੀਕਰਨ, ਵਿਸ਼ਵੀਕਰਨ) ਅਪਨਾਉਣੀ ਪਈ ਜਿਸਦੇ ਫਲਸਰੂਪ ਕੌਮਾਂਤਰੀ ਨਿੱਜੀ ਕੰਪਨੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਦੇਸ਼ ਵਿੱਚ ਸਥਾਪਤ ਕਰਨ ਦਾ ਰਾਹ ਪੱਧਰਾ ਹੋਇਆ। ਇਸਦਾ ਅਸਰ ਇਹ ਹੋਇਆ ਕਿ ਲੋਕ ਭਲਾਈ ਨੀਤੀਆਂ ਦਾ ਬਜਟ ਵਿੱਚੋਂ ਹਿੱਸਾ ਘਟਣ ਲੱਗਾ। ਇਸ ਤੋਂ ਇਲਾਵਾ, ਕੋਈ ਵੀ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਕ ਤੰਤਰ ਵਿਸ਼ਵ ਸਮਾਜ ਤੋਂ ਇਕੱਲਿਆਂ ਰਹਿ ਕੇ ਕਾਰਜ ਨਹੀਂ ਕਰ ਸਕਦਾ। ਉਦਾਹਰਣ ਵਜੋਂ ਜੇਕਰ ਚੀਨ ਦੀ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੁਆਰਾ ਆਪਣੇ ਉਤਪਾਦਨ ਦੇ ਨਿਰਯਾਤ (Export) ਉਪਰ ਪਾਬੰਦੀ ਲਗਾ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਜਾਵੇ, ਤਾਂ ਉਸਦਾ ਅਸਰ ਭਾਰਤ ਦੀ ਘਰੇਲੂ ਮੰਡੀ ਤੇ ਵੀ ਪਏਗਾ। ਭਾਰਤ ਦੇ ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਆਯਾਤ (Import) ਕੀਤੀਆਂ ਜਾਣ ਵਾਲੀਆਂ ਵਸਤੂਆਂ ਦੀ ਪੂਰਤੀ ਘੱਟ ਜਾਵੇਗੀ ਅਤੇ ਇਸ ਸਮੱਸਿਆ ਦਾ ਹੱਲ ਆਯਾਤ ਵਸਤੂਆਂ ਦਾ ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਹੀ ਉਤਪਾਦਨ ਕਰਕੇ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ ਜਿਸ ਨਾਲ ਬੇਰੁਜ਼ਗਾਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਘੱਟ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ।"

i) ਭਾਰਤ ਵਿੱਚ ਨਵੀਂ ਆਰਥਿਕ ਨੀਤੀ ਕਿਸ ਸਾਲ ਅਪਣਾਈ ਗਈ ਸੀ?

ii) 1991 ਦੀ ਨਵੀਂ ਆਰਥਿਕ ਨੀਤੀ ਦੇ ਤਿੰਨ ਮੁੱਖ ਤੱਤ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਸਨ?

iii) ਨਵੀਂ ਆਰਥਿਕ ਨੀਤੀ ਲਾਗੂ ਹੋਣ ਨਾਲ ਲੋਕ ਭਲਾਈ ਸਕੀਮਾਂ ਦੇ ਬਜਟ 'ਤੇ ਕੀ ਅਸਰ ਪਿਆ?

iv) ਜੇਕਰ ਚੀਨ ਆਪਣੇ ਨਿਰਯਾਤ 'ਤੇ ਰੋਕ ਲਗਾਉਂਦਾ ਹੈ ਤਾਂ ਭਾਰਤੀ ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ 'ਤੇ ਇਸਦਾ ਕੀ ਸਿੱਧਾ ਅਸਰ ਪਵੇਗਾ?

v) ਵਿਦੇਸ਼ੀ ਵਸਤੂਆਂ ਦੀ ਕਮੀ ਨੂੰ ਪੂਰਾ ਕਰਨ ਦੇ ਨਾਲ-ਨਾਲ ਦੇਸ਼ ਵਿੱਚ ਬੇਰੁਜ਼ਗਾਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਵੇਂ ਘਟਾਇਆ ਜਾ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ?

vi) ਇਹ ਪਹਿਰਾ ਤੁਲਨਾਤਮਕ ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਦੇ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਦੋ ਮੁੱਖ ਪਹਿਲੂਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਦਰਸਾਉਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

3 (ii) ਹੇਠਾਂ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਕੇਸ ਸਟੱਡੀ ਨੂੰ ਪੜ੍ਹੋ ਅਤੇ ਪੁੱਛੇ ਗਏ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦੇ ਉੱਤਰ ਦਿਓ:

"ਪੰਜਾਬ ਦੇ ਇੱਕ ਪਿੰਡ ਵਿੱਚ ਨੌਜਵਾਨਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਪਿੰਡ ਵਾਸੀਆਂ ਨੇ ਮਿਲ ਕੇ ਪਿੰਡ ਵਿੱਚ ਸ਼ਰਾਬ ਦੇ ਠੇਕੇ ਨੂੰ ਰਿਹਾਇਸ਼ੀ ਅਤੇ ਵਿਦਿਅਕ ਸੰਸਥਾਵਾਂ ਦੇ ਨੇੜਿਓਂ ਹਟਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਇੱਕ ਸਾਂਝੀ ਮੰਗ ਉਠਾਈ। ਪਹਿਲਾਂ ਉਨ੍ਹਾਂ ਨੇ ਸਥਾਨਕ ਪੱਧਰ 'ਤੇ ਆਪਸ ਵਿੱਚ ਮੀਟਿੰਗ ਕੀਤੀ (ਹਿੱਤ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟੀਕਰਨ), ਫਿਰ ਇੱਕ 'ਸੰਯੁਕਤ ਸੰਘਰਸ਼ ਕਮੇਟੀ' ਬਣਾਈ ਅਤੇ ਜ਼ਿਲ੍ਹਾ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਾਸਨ (ਡਿਪਟੀ ਕਮਿਸ਼ਨਰ) ਨੂੰ ਮੰਗ ਪੱਤਰ ਦਿੱਤਾ। ਇਸਦੇ ਨਾਲ ਹੀ ਸੋਸ਼ਲ ਮੀਡੀਆ ਅਤੇ ਅਖ਼ਬਾਰਾਂ ਰਾਹੀਂ ਆਪਣੀ ਆਵਾਜ਼ ਨੂੰ ਬੁਲੰਦ ਕੀਤਾ (ਰਾਜਨੀਤਕ ਸੰਚਾਰ)। ਇਸ ਮੰਗ ਨੂੰ ਦੇਖਦਿਆਂ ਸੂਬਾ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੇ ਆਪਣੇ ਨਿਯਮਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਸੋਧ ਕਰਦਿਆਂ ਰਿਹਾਇਸ਼ੀ ਇਲਾਕਿਆਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਠੇਕੇ ਖੋਲ੍ਹਣ ਉੱਤੇ ਪਾਬੰਦੀ ਲਗਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਨਵਾਂ ਨਿਯਮ ਬਣਾ ਦਿੱਤਾ ਅਤੇ ਹੁਕਮ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤੇ। ਇਸ ਫ਼ੈਸਲੇ ਤੋਂ ਬਾਅਦ ਪਿੰਡ ਵਾਸੀਆਂ ਨੇ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੀ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ੰਸਾ ਕੀਤੀ ਅਤੇ ਚੋਣਾਂ ਵਿੱਚ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੀਆਂ ਨੀਤੀਆਂ ਦਾ ਸਮਰਥਨ ਕੀਤਾ।"

i) ਪਿੰਡ ਵਾਸੀਆਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਸ਼ਰਾਬ ਦਾ ਠੇਕਾ ਹਟਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਮੰਗ ਡੇਵਿਡ ਈਸਟਨ ਦੇ ਮਾਡਲ ਅਧੀਨ ਕਿਸ ਸ਼੍ਰੇਣੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਆਉਂਦੀ ਹੈ?

ii) ਪਿੰਡ ਵਾਸੀਆਂ ਦੁਆਰਾ 'ਸੰਯੁਕਤ ਸੰਘਰਸ਼ ਕਮੇਟੀ' ਬਣਾਉਣਾ ਆਲਮੰਡ ਅਤੇ ਪਾਵੈਲ ਦੇ ਕਿਸ ਨਿਵੇਸ਼ ਕਾਰਜ ਨੂੰ ਦਰਸਾਉਂਦਾ ਹੈ?

iii) ਪਿੰਡ ਵਾਸੀਆਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਮੀਡੀਆ ਅਤੇ ਅਖ਼ਬਾਰਾਂ ਦੀ ਵਰਤੋਂ ਕਰਨਾ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦੇ ਕਿਹੜੇ ਕਾਰਜ ਨਾਲ ਜੁੜਿਆ ਹੋਇਆ ਹੈ?

iv) ਸੂਬਾ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਨਵਾਂ ਨਿਯਮ ਬਣਾਉਣਾ ਅਤੇ ਹੁਕਮ ਜਾਰੀ ਕਰਨਾ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦਾ ਕਿਹੜਾ ਕਾਰਜ (ਨਿਕਾਸ) ਹੈ?

v) ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੇ ਫ਼ੈਸਲੇ ਤੋਂ ਬਾਅਦ ਲੋਕਾਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਸਮਰਥਨ ਦੇਣਾ ਡੇਵਿਡ ਈਸਟਨ ਦੇ ਮਾਡਲ ਦੀ ਕਿਸ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ ਦਾ ਹਿੱਸਾ ਹੈ?

vi) ਇਸ ਕੇਸ ਸਟੱਡੀ ਤੋਂ ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਨਾਗਰਿਕਾਂ ਦੀ ਸਰਗਰਮ ਭਾਗੀਦਾਰੀ ਬਾਰੇ ਕੀ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਮਿਲਦੀ ਹੈ?

ਭਾਗ-ਸ (SECTION-D) : ਛੋਟੇ ਉੱਤਰਾਂ ਵਾਲੇ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ (ਕੋਈ 6 ਹੱਲ ਕਰੋ) 6 × 4 = 24 ਅੰਕ

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 4. ਤੁਲਨਾਤਮਕ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਅਤੇ ਤੁਲਨਾਤਮਕ ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਵਿੱਚ ਮੁੱਖ ਅੰਤਰ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕਰੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 5. ਪ੍ਰਤੱਖ ਅਤੇ ਅਪ੍ਰਤੱਖ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸਮਾਜੀਕਰਨ ਵਿੱਚ ਕੀ ਅੰਤਰ ਹੈ? ਉਦਾਹਰਨਾਂ ਸਹਿਤ ਲਿਖੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 6. ਜੀ. ਏ. ਆਲਮੰਡ ਅਤੇ ਪਾਵੈਲ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦੇ ਨਿਕਾਸ ਕਾਰਜਾਂ (Output Functions) ਦਾ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 7. ਇੱਕ ਸਿਹਤਮੰਦ ਅਤੇ ਉਸਾਰੂ ਲੋਕ-ਮਤ ਦੇ ਨਿਰਮਾਣ ਲਈ ਕਿਹੜੀਆਂ ਜ਼ਰੂਰੀ ਸ਼ਰਤਾਂ ਹੋਣੀਆਂ ਚਾਹੀਦੀਆਂ ਹਨ?

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 8. ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਕਾਰਜਪਾਲਿਕਾ ਅਤੇ ਸਥਾਈ ਕਾਰਜਪਾਲਿਕਾ (ਨੌਕਰਸ਼ਾਹੀ) ਵਿਚਕਾਰ ਕੋਈ ਚਾਰ ਮੁੱਖ ਅੰਤਰ ਲਿਖੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 9. ਮੱਤਦਾਨ ਵਿਵਹਾਰ (Voting Behaviour) ਤੋਂ ਕੀ ਭਾਵ ਹੈ? ਇਸ ਨੂੰ ਪ੍ਰਭਾਵਿਤ ਕਰਨ ਵਾਲੇ ਕੋਈ ਤਿੰਨ ਮੁੱਖ ਤੱਤ ਲਿਖੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 10. ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਵਿਰੋਧੀ ਧਿਰ (Opposition) ਦੀ ਭੂਮਿਕਾ ਅਤੇ ਮਹੱਤਤਾ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕਰੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 11. ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਦਲਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਦਬਾਓ ਸਮੂਹਾਂ ਵਿਚਕਾਰ ਕੋਈ ਚਾਰ ਮੁੱਖ ਅੰਤਰ ਲਿਖੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 12. ਪ੍ਰੰਪਰਾਵਾਦੀ (ਨਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ) ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦ ਅਤੇ ਸਮਕਾਲੀ (ਸਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ) ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦ ਵਿੱਚ ਮੁੱਖ ਅੰਤਰ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕਰੋ।

ਭਾਗ-ਹ (SECTION-E) : ਵੱਡੇ ਉੱਤਰਾਂ ਵਾਲੇ ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ (100% ਅੰਦਰੂਨੀ ਛੋਟ) 3 × 8 = 24 ਅੰਕ

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 13. ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸੱਭਿਆਚਾਰ (Political Culture) ਤੋਂ ਕੀ ਭਾਵ ਹੈ? ਇਸ ਦੇ ਨਿਰਮਾਣ ਨੂੰ ਪ੍ਰਭਾਵਿਤ ਕਰਨ ਵਾਲੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਤੱਤਾਂ ਦਾ ਵਿਸਥਾਰਪੂਰਵਕ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰੋ।

ਜਾਂ (OR)

ਤੁਲਨਾਤਮਕ ਰਾਜਨੀਤੀ ਦੀ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਤੀ (ਸੁਭਾਅ) ਅਤੇ ਖੇਤਰ ਬਾਰੇ ਵਿਸਥਾਰਪੂਰਵਕ ਚਰਚਾ ਕਰੋ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 14. ਬਹੁ-ਦਲ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ (Multi-Party System) ਤੋਂ ਕੀ ਭਾਵ ਹੈ? ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਬਹੁ-ਦਲ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਗੁਣਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਦੋਸ਼ਾਂ ਦੀ ਵਿਸਥਾਰ ਨਾਲ ਚਰਚਾ ਕਰੋ।

ਜਾਂ (OR)

ਡੇਵਿਡ ਈਸਟਨ ਦੇ 'ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਪ੍ਰਣਾਲੀ ਦੇ ਮਾਡਲ' (Political System Model) ਦਾ ਵਿਸਥਾਰਪੂਰਵਕ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰੋ ਅਤੇ ਇਸਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਤੱਤਾਂ (ਨਿਵੇਸ਼, ਨਿਕਾਸ, ਮਾਹੌਲ ਅਤੇ ਫੀਡਬੈਕ) ਨੂੰ ਸਮਝਾਓ।

ਪ੍ਰਸ਼ਨ 15. ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦ (Liberalism) ਤੋਂ ਕੀ ਭਾਵ ਹੈ? ਆਧੁਨਿਕ (ਸਮਕਾਲੀ) ਉਦਾਰਵਾਦ ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਸਿਧਾਂਤਾਂ ਅਤੇ ਵਿਸ਼ੇਸ਼ਤਾਵਾਂ ਦਾ ਵਿਸਥਾਰ ਨਾਲ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰੋ।

ਜਾਂ (OR)

ਰਾਜਨੀਤਿਕ ਸਮਾਜੀਕਰਨ (Political Socialisation) ਦੇ ਮੁੱਖ ਸਾਧਨਾਂ ਦਾ ਵਿਸਥਾਰ ਨਾਲ ਵਰਣਨ ਕਰੋ ਅਤੇ ਆਧੁਨਿਕ ਲੋਕਤੰਤਰ ਵਿੱਚ ਮੀਡੀਆ ਤੇ ਸੋਸ਼ਲ ਮੀਡੀਆ ਦੀ ਭੂਮਿਕਾ ਸਪੱਸ਼ਟ ਕਰੋ।

PRINCIPAL PROMOTION STAYED : ਹਾਈਕੋਰਟ ਦਾ ਅਹਿਮ ਫ਼ੈਸਲਾ: ਪ੍ਰਿੰਸੀਪਲਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਤਰੱਕੀਆਂ 'ਤੇ ਲਗਾਈ ਰੋਕ

 

ਵੱਡੀ ਖ਼ਬਰ

ਪੰਜਾਬ ਅਤੇ ਹਰਿਆਣਾ ਹਾਈਕੋਰਟ ਦਾ ਅਹਿਮ ਫ਼ੈਸਲਾ: ਪ੍ਰਿੰਸੀਪਲਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਤਰੱਕੀਆਂ 'ਤੇ ਲਗਾਈ ਰੋਕ

ਮਿਤੀ: 26 ਅਗਸਤ, 2026 | ਸਥਾਨ: ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ

ਚੰਡੀਗੜ੍ਹ: ਪੰਜਾਬ ਅਤੇ ਹਰਿਆਣਾ ਹਾਈਕੋਰਟ ਨੇ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਦੇ ਸਿੱਖਿਆ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪ੍ਰਿੰਸੀਪਲ ਦੇ ਅਹੁਦੇ ਲਈ ਕੀਤੀਆਂ ਜਾਣ ਵਾਲੀਆਂ ਵਿਭਾਗੀ ਤਰੱਕੀਆਂ (Departmental Promotions) 'ਤੇ ਅਗਲੇ ਹੁਕਮਾਂ ਤੱਕ ਰੋਕ ਲਗਾ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਅੰਤਰਿਮ ਹੁਕਮ ਮਾਣਯੋਗ ਜੱਜ ਕੁਲਦੀਪ ਤਿਵਾੜੀ ਦੀ ਅਦਾਲਤ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਸੰਦੀਪ ਸੂਦ ਅਤੇ ਹੋਰਾਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਦਾਇਰ ਪਟੀਸ਼ਨ (CWP-27292-2026) ਦੀ ਸੁਣਵਾਈ ਕਰਦਿਆਂ ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤੇ ਗਏ ਹਨ।

ਪਟੀਸ਼ਨਰਾਂ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੇਸ਼ ਹੋਏ ਸੀਨੀਅਰ ਐਡਵੋਕੇਟ ਡੀ. ਐੱਸ. ਪਟਵਾਲੀਆ, ਐਡਵੋਕੇਟ ਪ੍ਰਿਯੰਕਾ ਚੌਧਰੀ ਅਤੇ ਐਡਵੋਕੇਟ ਅਮਰਿੰਦਰ ਸਿੰਘ ਨੇ ਅਦਾਲਤ ਦੇ ਧਿਆਨ ਵਿੱਚ ਲਿਆਂਦਾ ਕਿ ਵਿਭਾਗੀ ਪੱਤਰ (ਮਿਤੀ 03.08.2026) ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਵੱਖ-ਵੱਖ ਕਾਡਰਾਂ ਦੀ ਹਾਲੇ ਤੱਕ ਕੋਈ ਵੱਖਰੀ ਸੀਨੀਆਰਤਾ ਸੂਚੀ (Seniority List) ਜਾਰੀ ਜਾਂ ਤਿਆਰ ਨਹੀਂ ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ। ਇਸ ਦੇ ਬਾਵਜੂਦ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪ੍ਰਿੰਸੀਪਲ ਦੇ ਅਹੁਦੇ 'ਤੇ ਤਰੱਕੀਆਂ ਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ ਸ਼ੁਰੂ ਕਰ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਗਈ ਹੈ, ਜੋ ਕਿ ਮੁਲਾਜ਼ਮਾਂ 'ਤੇ ਲਾਗੂ ਹੁੰਦੇ ਸੇਵਾ ਨਿਯਮਾਂ ਦੇ ਸਰਾਸਰ ਉਲਟ ਹੈ।

"ਅਗਲੀ ਸੁਣਵਾਈ ਤੱਕ ਸਬੰਧਤ ਵਿਭਾਗ ਨੂੰ ਪ੍ਰਿੰਸੀਪਲ ਦੇ ਅਹੁਦੇ ਲਈ ਕਿਸੇ ਵੀ ਤਰ੍ਹਾਂ ਦੀ ਵਿਭਾਗੀ ਤਰੱਕੀ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ ਕਰਨ ਤੋਂ ਰੋਕਿਆ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਹੈ।"
- ਜਸਟਿਸ ਕੁਲਦੀਪ ਤਿਵਾੜੀ, ਪੰਜਾਬ ਅਤੇ ਹਰਿਆਣਾ ਹਾਈਕੋਰਟ

ਹਾਈਕੋਰਟ ਨੇ ਇਸ ਮਾਮਲੇ ਵਿੱਚ ਪੰਜਾਬ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੂੰ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਆਫ਼ ਮੋਸ਼ਨ (Notice of Motion) ਜਾਰੀ ਕੀਤਾ। ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱਲੋਂ ਪੇਸ਼ ਹੋਏ ਐਡੀਸ਼ਨਲ ਐਡਵੋਕੇਟ ਜਨਰਲ (AAG) ਸਾਹਿਲ ਆਰ. ਬਖ਼ਸ਼ੀ ਨੇ ਨੋਟਿਸ ਸਵੀਕਾਰ ਕਰਦਿਆਂ ਜਵਾਬ ਦਾਇਰ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਸਮਾਂ ਮੰਗਿਆ ਹੈ।

ਅਦਾਲਤ ਨੇ ਮਾਮਲੇ ਦੀ ਅਗਲੀ ਸੁਣਵਾਈ 13 ਜਨਵਰੀ 2027 ਤੱਕ ਮੁਲਤਵੀ ਕਰ ਦਿੱਤੀ ਹੈ ਅਤੇ ਉਦੋਂ ਤੱਕ ਪ੍ਰਮੋਸ਼ਨ ਪ੍ਰਕਿਰਿਆ 'ਤੇ ਪੂਰਨ ਰੋਕ ਬਰਕਰਾਰ ਰਹੇਗੀ।

ਕੇਸ ਨੰਬਰ: CWP-27292-2026 (CNR No: PHHC011428772026)

CLASS XII PHYSICS SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION • SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

 

CLASS XII PHYSICS

SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION • SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper carries 70 marks and is divided into four sections:
  • Section A: 16 MCQs × 1 mark = 16 marks
  • Section B: 6 questions × 2 marks = 12 marks
  • Section C: 9 questions × 3 marks = 27 marks, including one case-study-based question
  • Section D: 3 questions × 5 marks = 15 marks
• Attempt only one option where an internal choice is given.
• Use appropriate SI units and show necessary steps in numerical questions.

Useful Constants (where required):
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s | m_e = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg | e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C | μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹ | ε₀ = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² C² N⁻¹ m⁻²

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SECTION A — MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 × 1 = 16 MARKS)

Q1. Answer the following multiple-choice questions:

(i) The electric field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire is:

(A) inversely proportional to r
(B) inversely proportional to r²
(C) inversely proportional to r³
(D) independent of r

(ii) Which one of the following charges is NOT possible?

(A) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(B) 3.204 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(C) 5.607 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
(D) 6.408 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

(iii) The direction of electric field vector at a point on the equatorial line of a dipole is:

(A) in the same direction of dipole moment
(B) in the opposite direction to the dipole moment
(C) towards the negative charge
(D) towards the positive charge

(iv) Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is joule per coulomb:

(A) Power
(B) Electric field
(C) Electric potential
(D) Dipole moment

(v) For linear dielectrics, the ratio of dielectric polarisation P to the applied electric field E is equal to:

(A) Mobility
(B) Dipole moment
(C) ε₀ × Susceptibility
(D) Permittivity

(vi) In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free electrons in a conductor at absolute temperature T is:

(A) Zero
(B) Independent of T
(C) Proportional to T
(D) Proportional to T²

(vii) Kirchhoff's first law (∑ I = 0 at a junction) deals with the conservation of:

(A) Energy
(B) Momentum
(C) Charge
(D) Angular momentum

(viii) Resistance of an ideal ammeter is:

(A) Infinity
(B) 100 Ω
(C) Zero
(D) 1 Ω

(ix) When a magnetic compass needle is carried near a straight wire carrying current:
(I) The straight wire causes a noticeable deflection in the compass needle.
(II) The alignment of the needle is tangential to an imaginary circle centered on the wire in a plane perpendicular to the wire.

(A) Only (I) is correct
(B) Only (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct

(x) If the magnetic susceptibility of a material is 100, its relative permeability is:

(A) 100
(B) 99
(C) 101
(D) 10

(xi)
Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Reason (R): If magnetic field lines intersect, the magnetic field would not have a unique direction at the point of intersection.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

(xii) In electromagnetic induction, the induced emf in a coil is independent of:

(A) change in the magnetic flux
(B) time of change of magnetic flux
(C) resistance of the circuit
(D) number of turns in the coil

(xiii) In a purely capacitive circuit, if the frequency of AC is doubled, the capacitive reactance will:

(A) get doubled
(B) become four times
(C) get halved
(D) remain constant

(xiv) At resonance, a series LCR AC circuit behaves like a:

(A) purely capacitive circuit
(B) purely resistive circuit
(C) purely inductive circuit
(D) LC circuit

(xv) Displacement current is produced due to:

(A) Constant electric field
(B) Constant magnetic field
(C) Changing electric field
(D) Changing magnetic field

(xvi)
Assertion (A): Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
Reason (R): The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

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SECTION B — SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (6 × 2 = 12 MARKS)

Q2. Write Coulomb’s law in vector form and explain the terms involved. [2 Marks]

OR

State and explain Gauss's law in electrostatics. [2 Marks]

Q3. Define current density in a conductor. Mention its SI unit. [2 Marks]

Q4. The electrostatic potential at a point is 10 V. Find the work required to move a charge of 20 μC from infinity to that point. [2 Marks]

Q5. What is Lorentz force? Write the vector expression representing this force. [2 Marks]

Q6. The current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, calculate the self-inductance of the circuit. [2 Marks]

OR

In an inductive AC circuit, the value of inductance is 0.2 H and the frequency of AC is 50 Hz. Calculate the inductive reactance. [2 Marks]

Q7. Write Ampere-Maxwell’s equation and explain the physical terms. [2 Marks]

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SECTION C — SHORT ANSWER / CASE STUDY QUESTIONS (9 × 3 = 27 MARKS)

Q8. State the principle of superposition of electrostatic forces. Three equal positive charges are placed at three corners A, B, and C of a square ABCD. Sketch a diagram to show the resultant force on the charge at B. [3 Marks]

OR

Describe an experiment to demonstrate that there are two distinct types of electric charges using glass and plastic rods. [3 Marks]

Q9. Distinguish between polar and non-polar dielectrics. Give one example for each. [3 Marks]

Q10. Two point charges q_A = 3 μC and q_B = −3 μC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum. Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges. [3 Marks]

Q11. Derive an expression for the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time. [3 Marks]

Q12. State and explain Gauss's law in magnetism. What important property of magnetic monopoles does it signify? [3 Marks]

Q13. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram how a galvanometer is converted into an ammeter of a given range. [3 Marks]

OR

Explain with the help of a circuit diagram how a galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter of a given range. [3 Marks]

Q14. CASE STUDY-BASED QUESTION

A modern hospital relies on an uninterrupted AC power supply for operation theatres, intensive care units, and diagnostic equipment. During a power outage, an inverter converts DC from batteries into alternating current to ensure that critical equipment continues to function. The inverter generates an alternating voltage with a peak value of 325 V and a frequency of 50 Hz. Engineers monitor the RMS voltage, current, and power factor to ensure efficient power transmission and minimize energy losses. The maintenance team also studies the behaviour of resistive, inductive, and capacitive loads connected to the AC supply before selecting suitable transformers and protection devices.

(a) Why is RMS value used instead of peak value while specifying domestic AC supply? [1 mark]
(b) Calculate the RMS voltage if the peak voltage is 325 V. [1 mark]
(c) State any two advantages of AC over DC for long-distance power transmission. [1 mark]

Q15. What is resonance in a series LCR circuit? Obtain the expression for its resonant frequency. [3 Marks]

OR

Mention any three major sources of energy loss in a transformer and how they are minimized. [3 Marks]

Q16. A current loop of area 20 × 10⁻⁴ m² carrying a current of 0.2 A is placed with its plane at an angle of 60° with a uniform magnetic field of strength 4 × 10⁻² T. Calculate the torque exerted on the loop. [3 Marks]

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SECTION D — LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 × 5 = 15 MARKS)

Q17.

(a) Using Gauss's law, derive the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire of linear charge density λ.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of electric field E with distance r from the wire.

OR

(a) Define capacitance of a capacitor.
(b) Derive the expression for the effective capacitance of two capacitors connected in series.
(c) Write two factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends.

[5 Marks]

Q18.

(a) Derive the expression for the force per unit length between two long, straight, parallel current-carrying conductors.
(b) Hence, define the standard SI unit of current ('ampere').

OR

(a) With the help of a neat labelled diagram, explain the construction, principle, and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(b) State the role of (i) radial magnetic field and (ii) soft iron core in a moving coil galvanometer.

[5 Marks]

Q19.

(a) An AC voltage v = v₀ sin(ωt) is applied across a pure inductor of inductance L. Derive the expression for the instantaneous current and show that current lags voltage by π/2 radians.
(b) Draw the phasor diagram and voltage-current waveforms for this circuit.

OR

(a) Derive the expression for the impedance of a series LCR circuit connected to an AC source using a phasor diagram.
(b) Obtain the condition under which electrical resonance occurs and state the power factor at resonance.

[5 Marks]

Punjab board class 12 Chemistry sample Paper september 2026 -Set 3

CLASS-XII: CHEMISTRY (THEORY) — SET 3

Term-1 / September Examination (2026–27)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

1. There are 21 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 1 question (Q1) with 18 sub-parts carrying 1 mark each. Sub-parts (i) to (xvi) are Multiple Choice Questions, and (xvii) to (xviii) are Assertion-Reasoning questions.

3. SECTION B consists of 12 Very Short Answer questions (Q2 to Q13) carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in three questions.

4. SECTION C consists of 6 Short Answer & Case Study questions (Q14 to Q19) carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in two questions. Q19 is a Case Study question.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 Long Answer questions (Q20 and Q21) carrying 5 marks each. Internal choice is provided in both questions.

6. Use of log tables and unprogrammable calculators is allowed.

Blue Print & Weightage Summary

Chapter Name	Section A (1M)	Section B (2M)	Section C (3M)	Section D (5M)	Total Marks
1. Solutions	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
2. Electrochemistry	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	—	1 (5M)	12 Marks
3. Chemical Kinetics	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
4. d- and f-Block Elements	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	1 (5M)	15 Marks
5. Coordination Compounds	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	2 (6M)	—	13 Marks
6. Biomolecules	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
Total Marks	18 Marks	24 Marks	18 Marks	10 Marks	70 Marks

SECTION A (18 Marks)

Get pdf of this question paper @Rs 50, WhatsApp 9464496353

Q1. Select and write the most appropriate option for the following sub-parts:

(i) In the laboratory, a student observes that water boils at a higher temperature after adding a non-volatile solute. This observation is explained by:

(a) Raoult's law (b) Henry's law (c) Charles's law (d) Graham's law

(ii) Which of the following is a colligative property?

(a) Surface tension (b) Viscosity (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Refractive index

(iii) If 1 mole of NaCl is dissolved in water, the observed colligative property is nearly double than expected. The reason is:

(a) Association of solute (b) Dissociation of solute (c) Non-ideal solution (d) Henry's law deviation

(iv) In electrolysis, Faraday's first law states that:

(a) Mass of substance deposited is proportional to current and time (b) Mass depends on voltage only (c) Mass depends on temperature only (d) None of these

(v) A student wants to electroplate a copper spoon with silver. Which setup is correct?

(a) Spoon as anode, silver as cathode (b) Spoon as cathode, silver as anode (c) Both spoon and silver as cathode (d) Spoon as anode, silver nitrate not required

(vi) A student removes the salt bridge from a Daniell cell while the cell is operating. What happens immediately?

(a) Cell voltage increases (b) Electron flow continues normally (c) Current soon stops because charge builds up (d) Zinc dissolves faster

(vii) For a reaction A + 2B → C, the rate law is given by Rate = k[A][B]². What is the overall order of the reaction?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

(viii) The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface at high pressure is a:

(a) Zero-order reaction (b) First-order reaction (c) Second-order reaction (d) Third-order reaction

(ix) For the reaction 2N₂O₅(g) → 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g), if the rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹, what is the rate of formation of NO₂?

(a) 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (b) 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (c) 4.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ (d) 8.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

(x) Chromium is used in stainless steel manufacturing. Which property makes it suitable?

(a) Formation of volatile oxides (b) High corrosion resistance due to Cr₂O₃ layer (c) Colourful compounds (d) High density

(xi) Which of the following elements is used in nuclear reactors among actinoids?

(a) Thorium (b) Uranium (c) Plutonium (d) All of these

(xii) Which transition element is commonly used in artificial satellites for corrosion resistance?

(a) Ti (b) Cu (c) V (d) Mn

(xiii) The coordination number of the central metal atom in [PtCl₄]²⁻ is:

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

(xiv) Which type of ligand is ethylenediamine (en)?

(a) Monodentate (b) Bidentate (c) Tridentate (d) Polydentate

(xv) Which of the following complexes is tetrahedral?

(a) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ (b) [NiCl₄]²⁻ (c) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (d) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻

(xvi) Vitamin 'C' is the chemical compound called:

(a) Riboflavin (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Rabinose (d) Thiamine

Directions for sub-parts (xvii) and (xviii):

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(xvii)

Assertion (A): In a galvanic cell, oxidation takes place at the anode.

Reason (R): The anode releases electrons during the oxidation process.

(xviii)

Assertion (A): Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Reason (R): In sucrose, the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formation.

SECTION B (24 Marks)

Q2. If a solution shows an elevation in boiling point of 0.52 K, calculate the molar mass of the solute. The ebullioscopic constant (K_b) for water is 0.52 K kg mol⁻¹ and the mass of solute used is 2 g in 100 g of water. (2 Marks)

Q3. Explain the term "molality" and describe how it differs from molarity. Why is molality preferred over molarity for measuring concentrations at varying temperatures? (2 Marks)

Q4. The standard emf of a galvanic cell is 0.0591 V at 298 K with n = 1. Calculate the equilibrium constant (K_c) for the cell reaction. (2 Marks)

Q5. A conductivity cell containing 0.01 M KCl solution has a resistance of 50 Ω. If the cell constant is 0.4 cm⁻¹, calculate: (2 Marks)

(a) Conductivity (κ)

(b) Molar conductivity (Λ_m)

OR

A car battery discharges during normal use. (2 Marks)

(a) Name the electrolyte used in a lead-acid battery.

(b) What happens to the concentration and density of H₂SO₄ during discharge?

Q6. Distinguish between the Order and Molecularity of a chemical reaction with two points of difference. (2 Marks)

Q7. Calculate the half-life of a first-order reaction having rate constant k = 4.93 × 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹. (2 Marks)

Q8. Zirconium (Zr) and Hafnium (Hf) exhibit almost identical chemical properties and ionic radii. Justify this observation. (2 Marks)

Q9. Why do transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states in their compounds? (2 Marks)

OR

Why do zinc (Zn), cadmium (Cd), and mercury (Hg) have comparatively low melting and boiling points? (2 Marks)

Q10. Differentiate between double salts and coordination compounds with a suitable example of each. (2 Marks)

Q11. Explain the chelate effect. Why are chelating complexes generally more stable than non-chelated complexes? (2 Marks)

Q12. What is mutarotation? Explain with reference to α- and β-anomers of D-glucose. (2 Marks)

Q13. State two important structural or chemical differences between DNA and RNA. (2 Marks)

OR

Differentiate between reducing sugars and non-reducing sugars with one example of each. (2 Marks)

SECTION C (18 Marks)

Q14. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point increased to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute (K_b for benzene = 2.53 K kg mol⁻¹). (3 Marks)

Q15. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 60 s⁻¹. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to 1/10^th of its initial value? (3 Marks)

OR

A first-order reaction takes 23.1 min for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction. (3 Marks)

Q16. Give scientific reasons for the following observations: (3 Marks)

(a) Transition metals and their compounds show paramagnetism.

(b) Transition metals easily form interstitial alloys.

(c) The +2 oxidation state of lead (Pb) is more stable than that of tin (Sn).

Q17. (3 Marks)

(a) What are ambidentate ligands? Give two examples.

(b) Write the formula of two coordination complexes showing linkage isomerism.

OR

Explain the difference between high-spin (outer orbital) and low-spin (inner orbital) octahedral complexes with one example of each. (3 Marks)

Q18. Differentiate between ionisation isomerism and hydrate (solvate) isomerism. Give one example formula for each type. (3 Marks)

Q19. CASE STUDY QUESTION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

A radioactive isotope used in medical oncology undergoes first-order nuclear decay. Unlike zero-order processes where the reaction rate is independent of substrate concentration, the rate of a first-order process is directly proportional to the reactant concentration at any given instant. Furthermore, the half-life period (t_1/2) of a first-order reaction is completely independent of the initial concentration ([R]₀) of the substance. Medicines and radio-pharmaceuticals frequently display shelf-life stability governed by Arrhenius temperature kinetics.

(a) On which kinetic parameters does the half-life of a first-order reaction depend? (1 Mark)

(b) If the half-life of a medical radioisotope sample is 4 hours, what fraction of the radioactive substance remains undecayed after 8 hours? (1 Mark)

(c) Why are certain medicinal drugs recommended to be stored at low temperatures in refrigerators? (1 Mark)

SECTION D (10 Marks)

Q20.

(a) For the cell:

Ni(s) | Ni²⁺(0.01 M) || Cu²⁺(0.01 M) | Cu(s)

Calculate the cell EMF (E_cell) at 298 K and formulate the Nernst equation for the cell reaction.

[Given: E°(Ni²⁺/Ni) = −0.22 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V] (3 Marks)

(b) The resistance of a 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte placed between two platinum electrodes 1.5 cm apart and having cross-sectional area of 2.0 cm² was found to be 30 Ω. Calculate the molar conductivity (Λ_m) of the solution. (2 Marks)

OR

(a) Calculate the maximum electrical work (W_max = −ΔG°) that can be obtained from the standard Daniell cell:

Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Cu²⁺(aq) | Cu(s)

[Given: E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (3 Marks)

(b) Answer the following: (2 Marks)

(i) Write the cathode and anode reactions occurring during the electrolysis of aqueous CuSO₄ using copper electrodes.

(ii) State one major advantage and one limitation of fuel cells compared to conventional batteries.

Q21.

(a) Explain the following: (3 Marks)

(i) Catalytic behaviour of transition metals based on variable oxidation states and surface adsorption.

(ii) Why actinoids exhibit a wider range of oxidation states compared to lanthanoids.

(iii) Why Cr²⁺ acts as a strong reducing agent whereas Mn³⁺ acts as a strong oxidising agent.

(b) (2 Marks)

(i) What is the general electronic configuration of d-block transition elements?

(ii) Explain why Cu⁺ is unstable in aqueous solution and undergoes disproportionation.

OR

(a) Account for the following: (3 Marks)

(i) Enthalpy of atomization of transition metals is quite high.

(ii) Transition metal ions generally form coloured complexes in aqueous solution.

(iii) Basic strength of lanthanoid hydroxides Ln(OH)₃ decreases progressively from La(OH)₃ to Lu(OH)₃.

(b) Write balanced chemical structures/equations for the preparation of potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) from chromite ore or explain the interconversion of chromate and dichromate ions with change in pH. (2 Marks)

PSEB CLASS 12 CHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER 2026 SET 2 ( SEPTEMBER EXAMINATION)

CLASS-XII: CHEMISTRY (THEORY)

Term-1 / September Examination (2026–27)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

1. There are 21 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 1 question (Q1) with 18 sub-parts carrying 1 mark each. Sub-parts (i) to (xvi) are Multiple Choice Questions, and (xvii) to (xviii) are Assertion-Reasoning questions.

3. SECTION B consists of 12 Very Short Answer questions (Q2 to Q13) carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in three questions.

4. SECTION C consists of 6 Short Answer & Case Study questions (Q14 to Q19) carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in two questions. Q19 is a Case Study question.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 Long Answer questions (Q20 and Q21) carrying 5 marks each. Internal choice is provided in both questions.

6. Use of log tables and unprogrammable calculators is allowed.

Blue Print & Weightage Summary

Chapter Name	Section A (1M)	Section B (2M)	Section C (3M)	Section D (5M)	Total Marks
1. Solutions	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
2. Electrochemistry	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	—	1 (5M)	12 Marks
3. Chemical Kinetics	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
4. d- and f-Block Elements	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	1 (5M)	15 Marks
5. Coordination Compounds	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	2 (6M)	—	13 Marks
6. Biomolecules	3 (3M)	2 (4M)	1 (3M)	—	10 Marks
Total Marks	18 Marks	24 Marks	18 Marks	10 Marks	70 Marks

SECTION A (18 Marks)

Q1. Select and write the most appropriate option for the following sub-parts:

Get pdf of this question paper @Rs 50, WhatsApp 9464496353

(i) While doing an experiment, a student adds glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) to water and measures the change in vapor pressure. Which colligative property is being studied?

(a) Osmosis (b) Elevation of boiling point (c) Relative lowering of vapor pressure (d) Depression in freezing point

(ii) According to Raoult's law, the vapour pressure of a solvent is directly proportional to its:

(a) Molarity (b) Mole fraction (c) Molality (d) Density

(iii) A student measures the osmotic pressure of different solutions at the same temperature. He finds that osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration. This relation is analogous to:

(a) Boyle's law (b) Avogadro's law (c) Ideal gas law (d) Charles's law

(iv) The standard electrode potential of a half-cell depends on:

(a) Concentration, pressure, and temperature (b) Only the temperature (c) Only concentration of ions (d) Nature of electrodes only

(v) An iron bridge near the sea is protected by attaching blocks of zinc to it. This method works because:

(a) Zinc forms a waterproof coating on iron (b) Zinc is more reactive than iron and oxidizes first (c) Zinc prevents oxygen from reaching iron (d) Zinc reacts with water to neutralize acids

(vi) What are the units of the rate constant (k) for a zero-order reaction?

(a) s⁻¹ (b) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ (c) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ (d) L² mol⁻² s⁻¹

(vii) The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with an increase in temperature because of:

(a) Decrease in activation energy (b) Increase in the number of effective collisions (c) Decrease in collision frequency (d) Increase in the threshold energy

(viii) In a reaction, if the concentration of a reactant drops from 1.0 M to 0.5 M in 20 minutes, and from 0.5 M to 0.25 M in the next 20 minutes, the order of the reaction is:

(a) Zero (b) First (c) Second (d) Third

(ix) Which of the following is a property of lanthanoids?

(a) Constant ionic radius across the series (b) Gradual decrease in ionic size with increasing atomic number (c) No variable oxidation states (d) Colourless compounds only

(x) A student compared magnetic properties of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions. Fe²⁺ shows 4 unpaired electrons while Fe³⁺ shows 5 unpaired electrons. Which statement is correct?

(a) Fe²⁺ is more paramagnetic (b) Fe³⁺ is more paramagnetic (c) Both are diamagnetic (d) Both show equal magnetic moment

(xi) Which transition metal compound acts as a catalyst in the Contact Process because of its ability to undergo changes in oxidation state?

(a) MnO₂ (b) V₂O₅ (c) CuO (d) ZnO

(xii) The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is:

(a) Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (b) Hexaamminecobalt(II) chloride (c) Hexaammoniacobalt trichloride (d) Cobalthexammine chloride

(xiii) Which of the following complexes shows linkage isomerism?

(a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (b) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]²⁺ (c) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ (d) [NiCl₄]²⁻

(xiv) The hybridization of the central metal atom in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:

(a) sp³ (b) dsp² (c) sp² (d) sp³d²

(xv) Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

(a) Uracil (b) Cytosine (c) Guanine (d) Thymine

(xvi) The helical structure of a protein is stabilized by:

(a) Peptide bond (b) Hydrogen bond (c) van der Waals forces (d) Dipole association

Directions for sub-parts (xvii) and (xviii):

In each question, an Assertion (A) is followed by a Reason (R). Choose the correct option:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(xvii)

Assertion (A): The emf of a Daniell cell increases when the concentration of Cu²⁺ ions is increased.

Reason (R): According to the Nernst equation, cell emf depends on the concentration of ions in solution.

(xviii)

Assertion (A): Glucose is a reducing sugar.

Reason (R): Glucose contains a free aldehydic group in its open-chain structure.

SECTION B (24 Marks)

Q2. A solution contains 5% by mass of urea (CH₄N₂O) in water. Calculate the molarity of the solution, given that the density of the solution is 1.10 g/mL. (2 Marks)

Q3. Given the vapor pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg, and a solution has a vapor pressure of 22.8 mm Hg, calculate the mole fraction of solute in the solution. (2 Marks)

Q4. What amount of electricity (in Coulombs or Faradays) can deposit 1 mole of calcium metal at the cathode when passed through molten CaCl₂? (2 Marks)

Q5. The resistance of 0.5 N solution of an electrolyte in a conductivity cell was found to be 25 Ω. Calculate the equivalent conductivity of the solution if the electrodes in the cell are 1.6 cm apart and have an area of 3.2 cm². (2 Marks)

OR

The molar conductances at infinite dilution for sodium acetate (CH₃COONa), hydrochloric acid (HCl), and sodium chloride (NaCl) are 95.5, 426.9, and 120.4 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively at 298 K. Calculate the molar conductance of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) at infinite dilution. (2 Marks)

Q6. Define a pseudo first-order reaction and illustrate it with a balanced chemical equation. (2 Marks)

Q7. Calculate the half-life of a first-order reaction having rate constant k = 200 s⁻¹. (2 Marks)

Q8. Explain why zinc (Zn) and cadmium (Cd) are normally not considered transition metals. (2 Marks)

Q9. Zn²⁺ ion is colourless whereas Cu²⁺ ion is coloured in aqueous solutions. Explain with reason. (2 Marks)

OR

Why are Fe³⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ compounds towards oxidation? (2 Marks)

Q10. Define a ligand. Give two examples of bidentate ligands. (2 Marks)

Q11. Write the hybridization and geometry/shape of [Ni(CO)₄]. (2 Marks)

Q12. What is a peptide linkage/bond? Illustrate with an example. (2 Marks)

Q13. Differentiate between essential and non-essential amino acids. (2 Marks)

OR

Why cannot Vitamin C be stored in the human body? (2 Marks)

SECTION C (18 Marks)

Q14. Addition of 0.643 g of a non-volatile compound to 50 mL of benzene (density = 0.879 g/mL) lowers the freezing point from 5.51 °C to 5.03 °C. If K_f for benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, calculate the molecular mass of the compound. (3 Marks)

Q15. A first-order reaction is 20% complete in 10 minutes. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction. (3 Marks)

OR

The rate constant of a first-order reaction increases from 2.5 × 10⁻² s⁻¹ to 5.0 × 10⁻² s⁻¹ when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. Calculate the activation energy (E_a) of the reaction (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹). (3 Marks)

Q16. What is meant by 'lanthanoid contraction'? State its primary cause and describe two major consequences on the chemistry of post-lanthanoid elements. (3 Marks)

Q17. Write the systematic IUPAC names of the following coordination entities: (3 Marks)

(i) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺

(ii) [Cr(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl

(iii) K₂[PdCl₄]

OR

Using Valence Bond Theory (VBT), explain why [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic while [NiCl₄]²⁻ is paramagnetic. (3 Marks)

Q18. Draw the crystal field splitting diagram of d-orbitals in an octahedral coordination field (Δ_o). Explain how the magnitude of crystal field splitting determines the formation of low-spin vs high-spin complexes. (3 Marks)

Q19. CASE STUDY QUESTION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

Proteins are high molecular mass biopolymers of α-amino acids joined together by peptide bonds. They play a fundamental role in physiological structure and metabolic regulation. In native proteins, the secondary and tertiary structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonding, disulfide linkages, and van der Waals interactions. When a native protein is subjected to physical changes such as temperature or chemical changes like alteration of pH, these non-covalent interactions are disrupted. As a result, globules unfold and helices get uncoiled, leading to loss of biological function without cleaving the covalent peptide backbone.

(a) Name the type of chemical linkage formed between −COOH and −NH₂ groups of adjacent amino acids in a protein chain. (1 Mark)

(b) Differentiate between fibrous proteins and globular proteins on the basis of shape and solubility. (1 Mark)

(c) What happens to the primary structure of a protein during denaturation? Give one common daily-life example of protein denaturation. (1 Mark)

SECTION D (10 Marks)

Q20.

(a) For the galvanic cell:

Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(0.0004 M) || Cd²⁺(0.2 M) | Cd(s)

Calculate the cell EMF (E_cell) at 298 K and find the standard Gibbs free energy change (ΔG°) for the reaction.

[Given: E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cd²⁺/Cd) = −0.40 V, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (3 Marks)

(b) State Faraday's first law of electrolysis. A steady current of 4 A is passed through an aqueous solution of CuSO₄ for 2 hours. Calculate the mass of copper deposited at the cathode.

[Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol⁻¹, 1 F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹] (2 Marks)

OR

(a) Represent the electrochemical cell and calculate its EMF (E_cell) at 298 K for the reaction:

Mg(s) + Cu²⁺(0.0001 M) → Mg²⁺(0.001 M) + Cu(s)

[Given: E°(Mg²⁺/Mg) = −2.37 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V] (3 Marks)

(b) Give reasons for the following:

(i) Write the chemical reactions occurring at the cathode and anode of a Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cell.

(ii) Zinc blocks attached to the hull of steel ships protect iron from corrosion even if scratched. (2 Marks)

Q21.

(a) Account for the following:

(i) Transition metals show variable oxidation states.

(ii) Zn, Cd, and Hg are soft metals with comparatively low melting and boiling points.

(iii) E° value for the Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is highly positive (+1.57 V) compared to Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺. (3 Marks)

(b) Write one point of similarity and one point of difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and actinoids. (2 Marks)

OR

(a) Explain the following observations:

(i) Transition metals and their compounds are effective industrial catalysts.

(ii) Zirconium (Zr, Z=40) and Hafnium (Hf, Z=72) have almost identical atomic and ionic radii.

(iii) KMnO₄ exhibits an intense purple colour despite the absence of unpaired d-electrons on Mn⁷⁺. (3 Marks)

(b) Write the chemical formulae of:

(i) Manganate ion

(ii) Dichromate ion

What is Misch metal? State one of its major uses. (2 Marks)

Punjab School Education Board Class XII –Biology September Examination 2026-27

Punjab School Education Board

Class XII – September Examination 2026-27

Subject: Biology (Theory)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There shall be one theory paper comprising 20 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A: Question No. 1 consists of 18 sub-parts carrying 1 mark each (16 MCQs and 2 Assertion-Reason questions).
3. Section B: Question Nos. 2 to 11 are Very Short Answer Type carrying 2 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 4 questions.
4. Section C: Question Nos. 12 to 17 are Short Answer Type carrying 3 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions.
5. Section D: Question Nos. 18 to 20 are Long Answer Type carrying 5 marks each. All questions have internal choice.
6. Use of calculators or log tables is not permitted. Draw neat and properly labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

SECTION – A (18 Marks)

Q.1 Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four given choices for each sub-part (i to xvi). Questions (xvii) and (xviii) are Assertion-Reasoning based. (18 × 1 = 18 Marks)

(i) Which one of the following is a post-fertilization event in angiosperms?

(A) Megasporogenesis

(B) Gametogenesis

(C) Endosperm development

(D) Pollination

(ii) The major evolutionary advantage of cleistogamous flowers to a plant is:

(A) Higher rate of cross-pollination

(B) Greater genetic recombination

(C) Assured seed set even without pollinators

(D) Production of larger seeds

(iii) In the human female reproductive tract, fertilization normally occurs in the:

(A) Uterus

(B) Cervix

(C) Ampulla of the fallopian tube

(D) Isthmus of the fallopian tube

(iv) Which outer cellular layer of the blastocyst directly participates in the formation of the placenta?

(A) Epiblast

(B) Hypoblast

(C) Trophoblast

(D) Inner cell mass

(v) 'Saheli', a widely used oral contraceptive pill developed in India, contains:

(A) High levels of progesterone

(B) Centchroman (non-steroidal)

(C) High levels of estrogen

(D) Levonorgestrel

(vi) A child is born with blood group O. If the mother has blood group A and the father has blood group AB, which conclusion is genetically valid?

(A) The child inherited the recessive allele directly from the father

(B) The child cannot be the biological offspring of this father as blood group AB lacks the i allele

(C) The father is heterozygous for blood group B

(D) The mother has the homozygous genotype I^AI^A

(vii) The physical association of two or more genes located on the same chromosome is termed:

(A) Recombination

(B) Linkage

(C) Pleiotropy

(D) Independent assortment

(viii) A genetic condition in which a single gene controls and influences multiple phenotypic traits is known as:

(A) Epistasis

(B) Pleiotropy

(C) Codominance

(D) Incomplete dominance

(ix) If one strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule contains the sequence 3'-ATTCGTAC-5', the complementary sequence synthesized on the other strand will be:

(A) 5'-UAAGCAUG-3'

(B) 3'-TAAGCATG-5'

(C) 5'-TAAGCATG-3'

(D) 5'-AUUCGUAC-3'

(x) Hershey and Chase used radioactive isotopes of which pair of elements to verify that DNA is the genetic material?

(A) Carbon (¹⁴C) and Sulphur (³⁵S)

(B) Nitrogen (¹⁵N) and Oxygen (¹⁸O)

(C) Phosphorus (³²P) and Sulphur (³⁵S)

(D) Phosphorus (³²P) and Carbon (¹⁴C)

(xi) The first hominid with a cranial capacity between 650–800 cc and tool-making ability was:

(A) Ramapithecus

(B) Homo habilis

(C) Australopithecus

(D) Homo erectus

(xii) Genetic drift produces significant changes in allele frequencies primarily in:

(A) Very large populations

(B) Small, isolated populations

(C) Rapidly mutating cosmopolitan populations

(D) Random mating populations of infinite size

(xiii) Which diagnostic test is widely used in laboratories to confirm typhoid fever?

(A) ELISA test

(B) Widal test

(C) Western blot

(D) Mantoux test

(xiv) Morphine and related opiate narcotics are extracted from the latex of which plant?

(A) Cannabis sativa

(B) Erythroxylum coca

(C) Papaver somniferum

(D) Datura stramonium

(xv) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) serves as an index of water quality because it measures:

(A) The total concentration of dissolved heavy metal salts

(B) The rate of oxygen consumption by aerobic microbes decomposing organic matter

(C) The total oxygen evolved by aquatic green plants

(D) The total volume of settleable suspended solids

(xvi) Which of the following is a free-living, soil-dwelling bacterium that fixes atmospheric nitrogen?

(A) Rhizobium

(B) Azotobacter

(C) Glomus

(D) Trichoderma

Directions for Q.17 & Q.18: In each question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(xvii) Assertion (A): The two complementary chains of a double-stranded DNA helix run antiparallel to each other.
Reason (R): One strand runs in the 5' → 3' direction with a free 5'-phosphate group, while the opposing strand runs in the 3' → 5' direction with an accessible 3'-hydroxyl group.

(xviii) Assertion (A): The primitive atmosphere of early Earth was completely reducing in nature without molecular oxygen.
Reason (R): Intense ultraviolet radiation instantly converted all free oxygen into an ozone shield during that era.

SECTION – B (20 Marks)

Answer the following Very Short Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 2 to 11 carry 2 Marks each). (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

Q.2 Compare geitonogamy and xenogamy based on their pollination mechanism and the genetic nature of the progeny produced. [2]

Q.3 Why is the human placenta described as a temporary endocrine tissue? Name any two hormones secreted exclusively or predominantly by it during pregnancy. [2]

Q.4 [Diagram-Based Question] The diagram given below represents sperm entry into an ovum during human fertilization.

(a) Identify the outer protective layer designated as (A) through which the sperm penetrates.
(b) State the role of acrosomal enzymes present at the tip of structure (B). [2]

OR

A female has a regular menstrual cycle of 32 days. Calculate and predict her most likely day of ovulation, and justify your answer based on the fixed lifespan of the corpus luteum (luteal phase). [2]

Q.5 Explain the physiological mechanism by which Copper-T (Cu-T) prevents pregnancy when placed inside the human uterus.

Get pdf of this question paper @Rs 50, WhatsApp 9464496353
 

[2]

Q.6 A student wants to know whether a tall pea plant with violet flowers in the garden is homozygous or heterozygous dominant. Name the test cross method and represent it with a Punnett square. [2]

OR

An individual is diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome having a chromosomal constitution of 44 + XXY. Mention any two distinct clinical symptoms observed in such an individual. [2]

Q.7 A sample of double-stranded DNA contains 2,000 nitrogenous bases in total, out of which 520 are adenine residues. Calculate the number of purines, pyrimidines, and guanine residues in this DNA sample. [2]

Q.8 Why are the wings of a butterfly and the wings of a pigeon called analogous organs? Name the evolutionary pattern responsible for this phenomenon. [2]

Q.9 In a human population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a dominant allele (A) is 0.6. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (a) and the proportion of heterozygous individuals (Aa). [2]

OR

What was the evolutionary significance of catching a live Coelacanth (lobe-finned fish) off the coast of South Africa in 1938? [2]

Q.10 Differentiate between benign tumours and malignant tumours based on their capsule formation and property of metastasis. [2]

Q.11 What are 'flocs' in a secondary sewage treatment plant? Explain their role in bringing down the BOD of effluent. [2]

OR

Name the bacterium responsible for the large holes found in 'Swiss cheese' and explain how these holes are formed. [2]

SECTION – C (18 Marks)

Answer the following Short Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 12 to 17 carry 3 Marks each). (6 × 3 = 18 Marks)

Q.12 Explain the two fusion events that constitute 'double fertilization' in angiosperms. Why is this event unique to flowering plants? [3]

Q.13 [Illustration-Based Question] The diagrammatic flow chart below shows the sequential maturation of ovarian follicles during the human ovarian cycle:

(a) What is the fluid-filled cavity characteristic of the tertiary follicle called?
(b) Which anterior pituitary hormone surge triggers the rupture of the Graafian follicle?
(c) What is the endocrine function of the corpus luteum in maintaining the endometrium? [3]

Q.14 In a dihybrid cross involving Drosophila melanogaster, T.H. Morgan crossed yellow-bodied, white-eyed females with brown-bodied, red-eyed males. The F₂ progeny showed 98.7% parental types and only 1.3% recombinant types.
(a) Explain why the phenotypic ratio deviated significantly from the expected Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio.
(b) Define the genetic mechanism responsible for this deviation. [3]

Q.15 In an experiment on E. coli, the mechanism of the lac operon was investigated:
(a) Identify the physiological inducer molecule in the lac operon.
(b) Explain what happens when the inducer binds to the repressor protein.
(c) List the three structural genes (z, y, a) and the specific enzymes they code for. [3]

OR

Describe Frederick Griffith's transformation experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae in mice. What conclusion was derived regarding the nature of the transforming principle? [3]

Q.16 Explain how natural selection operated on the peppered moth (Biston betularia) population in England before and after industrialization. What is this phenomenon termed? [3]

Q.17 Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity based on the origin of antibodies and longevity of protection. Give one practical medical example for each. [3]

OR

A patient exhibits high sustained fever (39°C–40°C), severe stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite.
(a) Identify the bacterial pathogen causing this disease.
(b) Name the diagnostic test used to confirm this infection.
(c) How is this disease transmitted in human communities? [3]

SECTION – D (15 Marks)

Answer the following Long Answer Type questions (Q. Nos. 18 to 20 carry 5 Marks each). (3 × 5 = 15 Marks)

Q.18 [Draw, Label and Explain Type Question]
(a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the human female reproductive system.
(b) Explain the functions of the following structures: (i) Fimbriae, (ii) Endometrium, (iii) Myometrium.
(c) Describe the structure of a mature Graafian follicle. [2+2+1 = 5]

OR

(a) Draw a schematic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule in a human testis and label any four parts.
(b) Explain the hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis in human males starting from the hypothalamus.
(c) State one difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation. [2+2+1 = 5]

Q.19
(a) Describe the Hershey-Chase blender experiment that proved that DNA is the genetic material.
(b) Why were ³²P and ³⁵S chosen for labelling nucleic acids and proteins respectively?
(c) What results were observed in the supernatant and bacterial pellet in both batches? [2+2+1 = 5]

OR

(a) Explain the semi-conservative replication of DNA with the help of a labelled replication fork diagram.
(b) State the specific functions of: (i) DNA Helicase, (ii) DNA Polymerase III, (iii) DNA Ligase.
(c) Why is DNA replication continuous on one template strand and discontinuous on the other? [2+2+1 = 5]

Q.20 [Case Study / Application-Based Question]
A 35-year-old patient reports to a clinic with continuous fever, chronic diarrhoea, rapid weight loss, and recurrent opportunistic infections. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) confirms that the patient is infected with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

Retrovirus (HIV) entry into Macrophage/T_H cell → Reverse transcription produces viral DNA → Incorporation into host genome → Production of new viral progeny → Progressive depletion of Helper T-lymphocytes.

(a) Explain why HIV is classified as a "retrovirus" and name the key viral enzyme involved in synthesizing DNA from viral RNA.
(b) Which specific immune cells are progressively destroyed by HIV? Why does their destruction paralyze both cell-mediated and humoral immunity?
(c) Differentiate between being 'HIV-positive' and having 'full-blown AIDS'.
(d) Mention any two effective preventive strategies recommended to control HIV transmission. [1+2+1+1 = 5]

OR

A 55-year-old chronic tobacco user is diagnosed with malignant lung cancer. Histological examination shows an abnormal mass of cells invading neighbouring tissues and blood vessels.
(a) Define contact inhibition and explain how normal cells differ from cancerous cells in this property.
(b) Explain the phenomenon of "metastasis" and why it is considered the most feared property of malignant tumours.
(c) Name three categories of carcinogens (physical, chemical, biological) with one example for each.
(d) Mention any two conventional therapies used in cancer management. [1+1.5+1.5+1 = 5]