CBSE SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER PDF HELD ON 25 FEBRUARY WITH ANSWER KEY

 

Question Paper - Social Science - Class X
Series: GEF1H
SET-2
रोल नं. / Roll No.

प्रश्न-पत्र कोड / Q.P. Code
32/1/2
परीक्षार्थी प्रश्न-पत्र कोड को उत्तर-पुस्तिका के मुख पृष्ठ पर अवश्य लिखें।
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code on the title page of the answer-book.
CBSE CLASS X सामाजिक विज्ञान
SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER 2025
निर्धारित समय: 3 घण्टे
Time allowed: 3 hours
अधिकतम अंक : 80
Maximum Marks: 80
नोट / NOTE
#
(I) कृपया जाँच कर लें कि इस प्रश्न-पत्र में मुद्रित पृष्ठ 25 + 1 मानचित्र हैं।
Please check that this question paper contains 25 printed pages +1 Map.
(II) प्रश्न-पत्र में दाहिने हाथ की ओर दिए गए प्रश्न-पत्र कोड को परीक्षार्थी उत्तर-पुस्तिका के मुख पृष्ठ पर लिखें।
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(III) कृपया जाँच कर लें कि इस प्रश्न-पत्र में 37 प्रश्न हैं।
Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
(IV) कृपया प्रश्न का उत्तर लिखना शुरू करने से पहले, उत्तर-पुस्तिका में यथा स्थान पर प्रश्न का क्रमांक अवश्य लिखें।
Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-book at the given place before attempting it.
(V) इस प्रश्न-पत्र को पढ़ने के लिए 15 मिनट का समय दिया गया है। प्रश्न-पत्र का वितरण पूर्वाह्न में 10.15 बजे किया जाएगा। 10.15 बजे से 10.30 बजे तक परीक्षार्थी केवल प्रश्न-पत्र को पढ़ेंगे और इस अवधि के दौरान वे उत्तर-पुस्तिका पर कोई उत्तर नहीं लिखेंगे।
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Question paper is divided into six sectionsSection A, B, C, D, E, and F.
  3. Section A – Questions no. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  4. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
  5. Section C – Questions no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
  6. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer (LA) type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
  7. Section E – Questions no. 34 to 36 are Case/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
  8. Section F – Question no. 37 is a Map skill-based question with two parts –
    • 37(a) from History (2 marks)
    • 37(b) from Geography (3 marks)
    This question carries a total of 5 marks.
  9. In addition to this, Visually Impaired Candidates have a separate question in lieu of those requiring visual inputs such as maps. These questions are to be attempted only by Visually Impaired Candidates.

SECTION A

(Multiple Choice Questions) (20×1=20)

  • 1. Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey?
    (A) Paddy
    (B) Maize
    (C) Wheat
    (D) Jowar
    Answer: (C) Wheat

  • 2. Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna - Godavari issue:
    (A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
    (C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
    (D) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
    Answer: (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

  • 3. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:
    Column I (Dam) Column II (River)
    a. Hirakud i. Chambal
    b. Gandhi Sagar ii. Krishna
    c. Nagarjuna Sagar iii. Kaveri
    d. Mettur iv. Mahanadi

    Options:
    (A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
    (B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
    (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
    (D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    Answer: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

  • 4. 'Sariska Tiger Reserve' is located in which one of the following states?
    (A) Madhya Pradesh
    (B) Rajasthan
    (C) Uttar Pradesh
    (D) Maharashtra
    Answer: (B) Rajasthan

  • 5.
    Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option:
    1. Reserved
    2. Protected
    3. Unclassed
    Options:
    • (A) III, II, I
    • (B) I, II, III
    • (C) II, III, I
    • (D) III, I, II

    Answer: (B)

    6. Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research?

    • (A) Easier access to rare manuscripts
    • (B) Reduced need for libraries
    • (C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
    • (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

    Answer: (D)

    7. The author of 'Book of Marvels' is:

    • (A) Marco Polo
    • (B) Columbus
    • (C) Vasco da Gama
    • (D) Alfred Crosby

    Answer: (A)

    8. Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:

    1. Poverty and hunger
    2. Slaves for sale
    3. Wide spread of diseases
    4. Religious conflicts and persecution
    Options:
    • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
    • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
    • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
    • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

    Answer: (C)

    9. Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866?

    • (A) Sardinia-Piedmont
    • (B) Venetia
    • (C) Sicily
    • (D) Papal State

    Answer: (B)

    10. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

    1
    Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
    Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
    Options:
    • (A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
    • (B) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
    • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
    • (D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

    Answer: (A)

    11. Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs ?

    1
    • (A) Poor households
    • (B) Households with few assets
    • (C) Both poor households and households with few assets
    • (D) Both well-off households and households with few assets

    Answer: (C)

    12. Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option:


    1. Lack of collateral
    2. Complicated procedure
    3. Higher cost of borrowing
    4. Lack of awareness
    Options:
    • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
    • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
    • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
    • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

    Answer: (C)

    13.Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow :



    The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy ?
    • (A) Primary
    • (B) Quaternary
    • (C) Secondary
    • (D) Tertiary

    Answer: (D)

    Note: The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 13.
    The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the economy?
    • (A) Bee-keeper
    • (B) Moneylender
    • (C) Basket weaver
    • (D) Fisherman

    Answer: (C)

    14. X lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy?
    1
    • (A) Primary
    • (B) Secondary
    • (C) Tertiary
    • (D) Quaternary

    Answer: (A)

    15.Study the following table related to "World Human Development Index and answer the questions given below:
    1
    S. No. Country HDI Rank in the world
    1. India 130
    2. Myanmar 148
    3. Nepal 149
    4. Pakistan 150
    Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in Human Development Index"?
    • (A) Pakistan
    • (B) India
    • (C) Nepal
    • (D) Myanmar

    Answer: (B)

    16. Which of the following are the main components of a political party ? Choose the correct option:
    1
    1. Leaders
    2. Active members
    3. Followers
    4. Pressure groups
    Options:
    • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
    • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
    • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
    • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

    Answer: (A)

    17. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
    1
    (Country) (System)
    (A) Canada Unitary
    (B) Bolivia Federal
    (C) Australia Unitary
    (D) Spain Federal

    Answer: (D) Spain : Federal

    18. Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government?
    1
    • (A) Unitary
    • (B) Presidential
    • (C) Federal
    • (D) Parliamentary

    Answer: (C)

    19. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:
    1
    Column I
    (Minerals)
    Column II
    (Major Mines)
    a. Iron ore i. Gaya
    b. Mica ii. Singarauli
    c. Bauxite iii. Chandrapur
    d. Coal iv. Maikala
    Options:
    • (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
    • (B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
    • (C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
    • (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

    Answer: (A)

    20. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
    Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

    Assertion (A): Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
    Reason (R) : All living things need minerals.
    1
    Options:
    • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Answer: (B)

    SECTION B (Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4×2=8)

    21. How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s promote globalisation? Explain. (2)

    22. Explain any two measures to solve the problem of land degradation. (2)

    23. Suggest any two measures to increase the number of women in legislatures of India. (2)

    24.

    (a) Explain the role of the anti-colonial movement in the rise of 'modern nationalism' in India. (2)

    OR

    (b) Why did Gandhiji say 'Satyagraha is pure soul-force'? Explain by giving two arguments. (2)

    SECTION C (Short Answer Type Questions) (5×3=15)

    25. "Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj." Support the statement in the context of plantation workers of Assam. (3)

    26.

    (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. (3)

    OR

    (b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments. (3)

    27. "Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy." Support the statement by giving suitable arguments. (3)

    28. Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows:

    Story of Rinjha

    Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing, and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

    What type of farming is Rinjha's family doing? Describe any two of its characteristics. (1+2=3)

    29. Explain the difference between the organised and unorganised sector of the economy with an example. (3)

    SECTION D (Long Answer Type Questions) (4×5=20)

    30. (a) Analyse the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of Italy. (5)

    OR

    (b) "The 1830s were considered the beginning of great difficulties in Europe." Analyse the statement. (5)

    31. (a) Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution. (2+3=5)

    OR

    (b) Explain the role of industries in increasing water pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce water pollution. (2+3=5)

    32. (a) "Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country." Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development. (5)

    OR

    (b) "The development goals of different categories of people may differ." Evaluate the statement. (5)

    33. (a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. (5)

    OR

    (b) Explain any five values of democracy. (5)

    SECTION E (Case/Source-Based Questions) (3×4=12)

    34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

    Loans From Cooperatives

    Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers' cooperatives, weavers' cooperatives, industrial workers' cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.

    Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for the construction of houses, and for a variety of other expenses.

    • (34.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit? (1)
    • (34.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. (1)
    • (34.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers. (2)

    35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

    Print and Censorship

    The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.

    During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to the imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

    (35.1) Explain the meaning of ‘censor’.

    1 Mark

    (35.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers?

    1 Mark

    (35.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act? Explain any two reasons.

    2 Marks

    36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

    An Experiment in Brazil

    A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

    (36.1) Explain the meaning of ‘participatory democracy’.

    1 Mark

    (36.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government?

    1 Mark

    (36.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil.

    2 Marks

    SECTION F

    (Map Skill-Based Questions) (2+3=5)

    37. (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27).

    Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

    • A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
    • B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

    Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).

    (a) (i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.

    1 Mark

    (ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

    1 Mark

    (b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

    • (i) Leading state in production of Jute
    • (ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
    • (iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
    • (iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

    Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).

    (b) Attempt any three questions.

    • (i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.
    • (ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat.
    • (iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand.
    • (iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located.
    CBSE SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER PDF HELD ON 25 FEBRUARY WITH ANSWER KEY

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