Punjab English Lecturer Question Paper (26-09-2026) –Unofficial Answer key
1. Animal communication is context-bound such that they can communicate only about the immediate environment while human language is context-free and humans can communicate about objects and events not present in their immediate time and place. The phenomenon is termed:
Correct Answer: (D) Displacement [1]
2. The property of arbitrariness of human language refers to:
Correct Answer: (A) No inherent connection between sounds and symbols [1]
3. Which of the following is not important for smooth intercultural communication?
Correct Answer: (C) Touching each other while speaking [1]
4. Which of the following is not a mode of mass communication?
Correct Answer: (C) Telephone
5. R.P. English is the prestigious, South-eastern accent of British English. What does it stand for?
Correct Answer: (C) Received Pronunciation
6. Which of the following is not part of the articulatory system?
Correct Answer: (B) Larynx
7. Which of the following plays an important role in producing nasal sounds by lowering itself?
Correct Answer: (D) Soft palate (velum)
8. Its front part is prominent in the neck and is commonly called 'Adam's apple'. The structure described is:
Correct Answer: (B) Larynx
9. In R.P. English there are _______ consonants.
Correct Answer: (B) 24
10. In English the sounds /p b/ /t d/ and /k g/ come under the category of:
Correct Answer: (B) plosives
11. The following feature of speech helps to determine whether a particular word is noun/adjective or verb:
Correct Answer: (A) Word accent (stress)
12. Which of the following is the chief means within connected speech by which the speaker conveys his attitudes and emotions like politeness, assertiveness etc.?
Correct Answer: (C) Intonation
13. Which of the following is not a grammatical function of falling tone?
Correct Answer: (D) yes/no type of questions
14. A morpheme is the _______ unit of form that has meaning in a given language.
Correct Answer: (B) smallest
15. The study of words in terms of word structure is called:
Correct Answer: (B) Morphology
16. The process of adding affixes to a base without changing its form class or part of speech is called:
Correct Answer: (A) Inflection
17. Affixes refer to:
Correct Answer: (B) bound morphemes
18. The doubling of vowels or consonants in a word is called:
Correct Answer: (A) Gemination
19. Apocope is a process of word formation in which:
Correct Answer: (C) There is the loss of final sound or syllable.
20. One of the limitations of Phrase Structure Grammars is:
Correct Answer: (A) That they do not show relationships between discontinuous constituents.
21. The word 'bank' is a classic example of:
Correct Answer: (C) Lexical ambiguity
22. The phrase 'very old men and women' illustrate:
Correct Answer: (B) structural ambiguity in language.
23. Which of the following is a rule under Transformational Generative Grammar?
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
24. Who wrote the book Syntactic Structures in 1957?
Correct Answer: (D) Noam Chomsky
25. In Chomsky's Aspects model, the Deep Structure is changed by means of Transformations into:
Correct Answer: (C) Surface Structure
26. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct Answer: (D) All are correct.
27. When the meaning of one form is included in the meaning of another, the relationship is called:
Correct Answer: (C) Hyponymy
28. Which of the following expressions qualify for deixis?
Correct Answer: (C) Tomorrow, here
29. Turn-taking is an important concept under:
Correct Answer: (B) Conversation Analysis
30. The words or phrases used to indicate that we are not really sure that what we are saying is sufficiently correct or complete are known as:
Correct Answer: (B) Hedges [3]
31. If linguistic groups are identified as middle class, working class, upper class etc., the speech varieties under study are referred to:
Correct Answer: (C) Sociolect
32. When people attempt to reduce social distance and use forms that are similar to those used by the person we are talking to, the phenomenon is called:
Correct Answer: (D) Convergence
33. Who gave the concept of 'Communicative Competence'?
Correct Answer: (D) Dell Hymes
34. Communicative Competence can be best illustrated as:
Correct Answer: (A) There are rules of use without which rules of grammar are of no use.
35. In his Preface to Pygmalion _____ says that 'it is impossible for an Englishman to open his mouth without making some other Englishman despise him'.
Correct Answer: (A) G.B. Shaw
36. According to Bernstein, the middle class uses:
Correct Answer: (B) Elaborated codes
37. Who reviewed Bernstein's verbal deprivation theory and cited that black children living in ghettoes have same competence in language as everyone else?
Correct Answer: (A) William Labov
38. There have been constant attempts to establish and institutionalize an Indian accent of English called:
Correct Answer: (C) General Indian English (GIE)
39. In Browning's My Last Duchess, the Duke's apparently courteous description of the Duchess gradually exposes his possessiveness and authoritarianism. This effect is primarily produced by Browning's use of:
Correct Answer: (B) Dramatic monologue
40. Which sequence places the following works in approximately correct chronological order?
Correct Answer: (B) The Rape of the Lock -> Lyrical Ballads -> Middlemarch -> The Waste Land
41. "Bickerstaff" pamphlets are associated with:
Correct Answer: (D) Jonathon Swift
42. Butler, Dryden, and Rochester were among the thinkers who followed the doctrine of which philosopher of skepticism who argued that knowledge derives from our senses, but the inaccuracy of our senses makes reliable knowledge impossible to achieve?
Correct Answer: (D) Montaigne
43. In Donne's "A Valediction : Forbidding Mourning", the lovers are compared to the two legs of a:
Correct Answer: (A) Compass
44. Henry Fielding's Joseph Andrews parodies Samuel Richardson's Pamela, but takes its model from what work of continental literature?
Correct Answer: (D) Cervantes's Don Quixote
45. Dryden wrote _____ in 1660 to welcome the new regime of King Charles II.
Correct Answer: (B) Astraea Redux [4]
46. Which writer is most strongly associated with the fictional town of Wessex?
Correct Answer: (B) Thomas Hardy
47. The publication of Lyrical Ballads in 1798 is conventionally regarded as a landmark in:
Correct Answer: (A) The emergence of English Romanticism
48. Which of the following novelists does not belong to the Victorian period?
Correct Answer: (D) Jane Austen
49. Which Shelley poem contains the famous line concerning the "unacknowledged legislators of the world"?
Correct Answer: (C) A Defence of Poetry
50. James Joyce's Ulysses is structurally connected to:
Correct Answer: (A) Homer's Odyssey
51. Which of the following is correctly matched with its dominant formal characteristic?
Correct Answer: (A) Byron — Don Juan — ottava rima
52. The Room on the Roof, Ruskin Bond's first novel, centres on:
Correct Answer: (D) Rusty, an Anglo-Indian adolescent living in Dehra
53. Which novel by Salman Rushdie features the character Moraes Zogoiby, who is born with the clock of the centuries ticking inside him, and blends Indian history with Jewish-Cochin heritage?
Correct Answer: (B) The Moor's Last Sigh
54. In which year did Seamus Heaney win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
Correct Answer: (C) 1995
55. Which of the following sentence contains alliteration?
Correct Answer: (B) She sells seashells by the seashore.
56. The title of Anita Desai's novel Fire on the Mountain is taken from which novel?
Correct Answer: (B) William Golding's Lord of the Flies
57. Which literary club did Alexander Pope and Jonathan Swift co-found to satirize academic pedantry and false learning?
Correct Answer: (C) The Scriblerus Club
58. Which poem is known as a "rhymed gazette"?
Correct Answer: (A) "The Campaign"
59. What is the real name of the author who wrote under the pen name George Eliot?
Correct Answer: (A) Mary Ann Evans
60. How many lines are there in a sonnet?
Correct Answer: (B) 14
61. Romantic Age in England was greatly influenced by the following revolution:
Correct Answer: (C) French Revolution
62. "I cannot rest from travel : I will drink / Life to the lees : All times I have enjoy'd / Greatly, have suffer'd greatly, both with those / That loved me, and alone, on shore"
In which poem of Tennyson do these lines appear?
Correct Answer: (D) Ulysses
63. Which George Orwell novel introduces the dystopian concept of "Big Brother" and "Thought Police"?
Correct Answer: (C) 1984
64. Which figure of speech is used in "How they clang, and clash, and roar! / On the bosom of the palpitating air!"
Correct Answer: (D) Onomatopoeia
65. Which scientific method does Bacon primarily advocate for in his work Novum Organum?
Correct Answer: (C) Inductive reasoning
66. With which famous architect did Ben Jonson frequently collaborate to produce elaborate court masques?
Correct Answer: (B) Inigo Jones
67. Who kills Cornelia's son, Marcello, in a sudden fit of volatile rage in The White Devil?
Correct Answer: (D) Flamineo
68. Which sequence accurately tracks the publication of Arundhati Roy's major standalone non-fiction books/booklets from earliest to latest?
Correct Answer: (C) War Talk -> Capitalism: A Ghost Story -> The Doctor and the Saint
69. To whom did Virginia Woolf officially dedicate her 1928 novel Orlando : A Biography?
Correct Answer: (B) Vita Sackville-West
70. In the text of Joseph Conrad's Heart of Darkness, what are the exact final words spoken by Kurtz before his death, as recorded verbatim by Marlow?
Correct Answer: (C) "The horror! The horror!"
71. Which of Robert Frost's poems was explicitly chosen and read aloud by him at the Presidential Inauguration of John F. Kennedy in 1961?
Correct Answer: (B) The Gift Outright
72. What is the exact title of the third, central section of T.S. Eliot's 1922 modernist masterpiece The Waste Land?
Correct Answer: (A) The Fire Sermon
73. Which prominent English author and member of the Bloomsbury Group wrote the preface to Mulk Raj Anand's debut novel Untouchable (1935)?
Correct Answer: (D) E.M. Forster
74. In Lord Byron's Don Juan, Canto I, who is explicitly named as the mother of the protagonist Don Juan?
Correct Answer: (B) Donna Inez
75. Match the Poem (List I) with their exact opening lines (List II):
List I: I. The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock | II. Christabel | III. Palanquin Bearers | IV. The Canonization
List II: 1. "Let us go then, you and I," | 2. "'Tis the middle of night by the castle rock" | 3. "Lightly, O lightly we bear her along," | 4. "For God's sake hold your tongue"
Correct Answer: (A) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
76. When John Milton writes in Paradise Lost, "No light, but rather darkness visible," what exact figure of speech is created by the immediate structural juxtaposition of contradictory terms?
Correct Answer: (D) Oxymoron
77. Which of Anita Desai's novels is partitioned structurally around the background of the 1947 Partition of India, focusing on the memories of Bim and Tara in Old Delhi?
Correct Answer: (B) Clear Light of Day
78. What is the exact, literal subtitle given by Thomas Hardy to his 1891 novel Tess of the d'Urbervilles?
Correct Answer: (B) A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented
79. Under what specific pseudonym did Salman Rushdie live during his years in hiding following the 1989 fatwa, which he later used as the title of his 2012 memoir?
Correct Answer: (A) Joseph Anton
80. Which of the following are not used as Determiners?
Correct Answer: (D) Prepositions
81. Which of the following proper nouns takes the definite article 'The'?
Correct Answer: (D) United States of America
82. Determiners are used to limit the semantic range or referential domain of:
Correct Answer: (D) Nouns
83. English adjectives do not inflect for:
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
84. Which of the following categories of auxiliaries can function both as lexical verbs and auxiliaries?
Correct Answer: (C) Primary auxiliaries
85. Tense or time reference is the function of which word class?
Correct Answer: (B) Verb
86. English has only _______ tenses.
Correct Answer: (B) 2
87. A prepositional phrase is traditionally considered a combination of two independent linguistic units:
Correct Answer: (D) A preposition and a noun (phrase)
88. Which of the following sentences have an indirect object?
Correct Answer: (B) His uncle sent him a mobile phone.
89. Which of the following is not a clause pattern?
Correct Answer: (D) S-O-O
90. The commonest structural difference between the main clauses and the subordinate clauses is the presence or absence of:
Correct Answer: (A) The finite verb group
91. Which of the following is not a subordinating element for a finite clause?
Correct Answer: (D) Must
92. Which of the following sentences has an adverb of place?
Correct Answer: (B) Birds fly to wherever they can find food.
93. Which of the following is a reason clause?
Correct Answer: (A) Since we were short of funds, we decided to buy only half the plot.
94. Which of the following sentences has a verbless clause?
Correct Answer: (A) Young and smart, he looked ready for action.
95. Which of the following sentences has a present tense with a future reference?
Correct Answer: (B) The college opens in July.
96. Which of the following is not a simple past tense?
Correct Answer: (D) The CBI is to look into the case.
97. In grammar, the manner in which the verbal action is regarded or perceived, like a repeated action, completed action or a continued action, is known as:
Correct Answer: (D) Aspect
98. Which of the following verbs is a stative verb?
Correct Answer: (C) Desire
99. Identify the past perfective sentence among the following:
Correct Answer: (A) The house had remained empty for a long time before I bought it.
100. A word that typically functions as a modifier of a verb, or an adjective or an adverb or categories other than noun is known as:
Correct Answer: (D) Adverb
101. Which of the following phrases does not have an adjective in the intensifying role?
- (A) a real devil
- (B) a sheer waste
- (C) an utter fool
- (D) a fond memory
Correct Answer: (D) a fond memory
102. Adjectives characteristically show the feature of:
- (A) Tense
- (B) Indefinite article
- (C) Number
- (D) Gradability
Correct Answer: (D) Gradability
103. Which of the following statement is not true regarding adjectives and adverbs?
- (A) Adjectives and adverbs are two closely related but different word classes.
- (B) Most adverbs are derived from adjectives by suffixation.
- (C) Gradable adjectives and adverbs allow intensification and comparison.
- (D) Adjectives and Adverbs constitute the most well-defined and homogeneous class.
Correct Answer: (D) Adjectives and Adverbs constitute the most well-defined and homogeneous class.
104. The auxiliary verb 'used to' indicate:
- (A) Continuous or repeated action in the past
- (B) Advice or recommendation
- (C) Obligation or logical necessity
- (D) Tentative conclusion
Correct Answer: (A) Continuous or repeated action in the past
105. In the sentence 'Could you lend me some money?', the modal 'could' signals:
- (A) Permission
- (B) Polite request
- (C) Necessity
- (D) Prediction
Correct Answer: (B) Polite request
106. Which of the following words does not come under the category of irregular verb?
- (A) Grow
- (B) Bind
- (C) Create
- (D) Drive
Correct Answer: (C) Create
107. The form of sentence in terms of question, assertion or request is realized in grammar by:
- (A) Tense and aspect
- (B) Mood and modality
- (C) Neither (A) nor (B)
- (D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (B) Mood and modality
108. Which of the following is not a modal auxiliary?
- (A) Might
- (B) Shall
- (C) Do
- (D) Ought to
Correct Answer: (C) Do
109. Which of the following auxiliaries is generally dummy but important to make negative, interrogative and emphatic sentences?
- (A) Do
- (B) Have
- (C) Be
- (D) Can
Correct Answer: (A) Do
110. Which of following sentences has a past subjunctive mood?
- (A) I rather wish it were true.
- (B) It was true.
- (C) It was not true.
- (D) It will be true.
Correct Answer: (A) I rather wish it were true.
111. A misogynist is the one who:
- (A) hates women.
- (B) does not pursue the pleasures of flesh.
- (C) believes in self-advancement
- (D) turns thoughts outward.
Correct Answer: (A) hates women.
112. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called:
- (A) Barometer
- (B) Tripod
- (C) Hygrometer
- (D) Thermometer
Correct Answer: (A) Barometer
113. Give the synonym of 'stoical'.
- (A) Heavy
- (B) Clear
- (C) Unemotional
- (D) Happy
Correct Answer: (C) Unemotional
114. The antonym of 'stagnant' is:
- (A) Clear
- (B) Humid
- (C) Mobile
- (D) Safe
Correct Answer: (C) Mobile
115. Give the meaning of the idiom- break the ice:
- (A) Achieve two goals with one action
- (B) Feeling ill
- (C) Fall sick
- (D) Start a conversation
Correct Answer: (D) Start a conversation
116. Give the meaning of the idiom- The ball is in your court:
- (A) It is your turn to decide or act
- (B) Reveal a secret accidentally
- (C) Every bad situation has something good
- (D) Tease or joke someone
Correct Answer: (A) It is your turn to decide or act
117. Give the meaning of the idiom- Beat around the bush:
- (A) Extremely happy
- (B) Avoid the main topic
- (C) Blaming or accusing the wrong person
- (D) Don't judge by appearances
Correct Answer: (B) Avoid the main topic
Read the following passage and answer questions from 118-120:
In his classic short horror novel, The Turn of the Screw, Henry James tells a tale concerned with a curse of evil which has permeated the lives of two beautiful children, Miles, aged ten, and Flora, eight. James reveals how the supernatural forces of two ghosts of former servants, steward Peter Quint and governess, Miss Jessel channel through the consciousness of a new, neurotic governess who desperately tries to protect her charges. The ghosts appear to her as real people, but are invisible to the children and the housekeeper. Her efforts with Flora succeed only in arousing the girl's terror; in the final scene, moreover, Miles dies in her arms while the spectre she tries to obliterate stands looking through the window.
118. Who are the ghosts in the novel The Turn of the Screw?
- (A) Flora and Miles
- (B) Governess and the housekeeper
- (C) Peter Quint and Miss Jessel
- (D) Not mentioned in the text
Correct Answer: (C) Peter Quint and Miss Jessel
119. Whom does the new governess tries to protect?
- (A) Flora
- (B) Miles
- (C) Both (A) and (B)
- (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
120. What is the effect of the new governess's efforts on Flora?
- (A) Flora kills her.
- (B) She scares Flora more.
- (C) Flora leaves the house.
- (D) Flora drowns in the lake.
Correct Answer: (B) She scares Flora more.
121. The summary or abstract of a text with a specific number of words is called:
- (A) essay.
- (B) verse.
- (C) paragraph.
- (D) précis.
Correct Answer: (D) précis.
122. An official letter should be generally written using:
- (A) slang and colloquial expressions.
- (B) informal greetings.
- (C) polite and formal language.
- (D) many quotes and references
Correct Answer: (C) polite and formal language.
123. A text written to the principal requesting sick leave is an example of:
- (A) a personal letter.
- (B) an application.
- (C) an advertisement.
- (D) a précis.
Correct Answer: (B) an application.
124. The primary purpose of précis is:
- (A) expand the original passage.
- (B) reproduce the passage word by word.
- (C) condense the passage while retaining the main ideas.
- (D) add personal opinions.
Correct Answer: (C) condense the passage while retaining the main ideas.
125. A notice is generally written to:
- (A) entertain the readers.
- (B) give information to a specific group of people.
- (C) express personal feelings.
- (D) narrate a story.
Correct Answer: (B) give information to a specific group of people.
126. A notice must contain:
- (A) Date, heading and issuing authority.
- (B) a long introduction and conclusion.
- (C) a bibliography.
- (D) glossary.
Correct Answer: (A) Date, heading and issuing authority.
127. Which of the following is not a part of a business letter?
- (A) Inside address
- (B) Date
- (C) Salutation
- (D) Preface
Correct Answer: (D) Preface
128. Which of the following is important with regard to a complaint letter by a business head?
- (A) The letters are written to settle the claims without losing the business.
- (B) The letters often demonstrate threats, accusations and veiled hints.
- (C) The end of such letters is often abrupt and unfavorable.
- (D) The letters must never mention an apology to the client
Correct Answer: (A) The letters are written to settle the claims without losing the business.
129. An effective job application letter must include:
- (A) An introductory sentence or paragraph which immediately attracts the attention of the employer.
- (B) It must state whether one is applying in response to an advertisement or at somebody's suggestion or one's own initiative
- (C) Both (A) and (B)
- (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
130. Reference/recommendation letters are special letters asked from people like:
- (A) Former employees
- (B) Teachers
- (C) Corporate leaders
- (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
131. The four main types of ________ are argumentative, expository, narrative and descriptive.
- (A) Letter
- (B) Précis
- (C) Notice
- (D) Essay
Correct Answer: (D) Essay
132. Which quality is most important in a message?
- (A) Ambiguity
- (B) Brevity
- (C) Ornamentation
- (D) Suspense
Correct Answer: (B) Brevity
133. A good system of note making generally follows:
- (A) Random ordering
- (B) Logical hierarchy
- (C) Alphabetical ordering
- (D) Chronological ordering in every case
Correct Answer: (B) Logical hierarchy
134. In note making, symbols and abbreviations are used mainly to:
- (A) Make notes longer
- (B) Save time and space
- (C) Make the notes difficult to understand
- (D) Replace the heading
Correct Answer: (B) Save time and space
135. A suitable title for notes should:
- (A) Be as long as possible
- (B) Reflect the central idea of the passage
- (C) Contain every detail
- (D) Reproduce the opening sentence
Correct Answer: (B) Reflect the central idea of the passage
136. Which method of teaching English is known as Berlitz method?
- (A) Grammar Translation Method
- (B) Audio-Lingual method
- (C) Direct Method
- (D) Traditional Grammar
Correct Answer: (C) Direct Method
137. Structural approach was in which of the following university?
- (A) University of Michigan
- (B) University of London
- (C) University of California
- (D) University of Pennsylvania
Correct Answer: (B) University of London
138. Which of the following are three sorts of situational syllabi under situational approach of teaching language?
- (A) Structural, lexical and grammatical
- (B) Functional, notional and procedural
- (C) Phonological, semantic and morphological
- (D) Concrete, mythical and limbo
Correct Answer: (D) Concrete, mythical and limbo
139. How many phases are included in planning of teaching?
- (A) 5
- (B) 6
- (C) 3
- (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
140. Morrison's general pattern for instructional process involves various sequential steps. Which of the following is first step?
- (A) Learning outcomes
- (B) General aids
- (C) Pretest
- (D) Testing the results of instruction
Correct Answer: (C) Pretest
141. Who said, "Careful reflections on past experiences result in teacher growth and more effective planning and teaching."?
- (A) Donald Schön
- (B) John Dewey
- (C) Donald Cruickshank
- (D) Philip Jackson
Correct Answer: (C) Donald Cruickshank
142. Which of the following is a multi-tiered model of classifying thinking, according to six cognitive levels of complexity?
- (A) Gagné's Nine Events of Instruction
- (B) Bloom's Taxonomy
- (C) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
- (D) Morrison's Instructional Model
Correct Answer: (B) Bloom's Taxonomy
143. What is the full form of ELPT?
- (A) English Language Proficiency Test
- (B) English Learning Performance Test
- (C) English Language Pedagogy Test
- (D) English Language Practice Test
Correct Answer: (A) English Language Proficiency Test
144. Which test tries to find out what exactly a learner has learnt in a given teaching context?
- (A) Proficiency Test
- (B) Aptitude Test
- (C) Achievement Test
- (D) Diagnostic Test
Correct Answer: (C) Achievement Test
145. Which type of validity checks whether the content of the test questions is accurate and appropriate?
- (A) Construct Validity
- (B) Criterion-related Validity
- (C) Content Validity
- (D) Predictive Validity
Correct Answer: (C) Content Validity
146. Skimming and scanning are different types of sub-skills used in which of the following?
- (A) Speaking
- (B) Listening
- (C) Reading
- (D) Writing
Correct Answer: (C) Reading
147. Which of the following approaches is used in teaching grammar as a rule-discovery path?
- (A) Deductive Approach
- (B) Inductive Approach
- (C) Structural Approach
- (D) Translation Approach
Correct Answer: (B) Inductive Approach
148. Who stated that "Silent reading inculcates love for reading and is pleasurable and it gives the pupils a feeling of power and achievement"?
- (A) A.W. Frisby
- (B) W.S. Tomkinson
- (C) C.H. Handschin
- (D) Morrison
Correct Answer: (A) A.W. Frisby
149. In revised Bloom's Taxonomy, the basic elements that students must know to be acquainted with a discipline or solve problems in it, is the part of which type of knowledge?
- (A) Conceptual Knowledge
- (B) Procedural Knowledge
- (C) Factual Knowledge
- (D) Metacognitive Knowledge
Correct Answer: (C) Factual Knowledge
150. Who said, "Prose is words in their best form and poetry is the best of the words in their best form"?
- (A) William Wordsworth
- (B) Matthew Arnold
- (C) S.T. Coleridge
- (D) T.S. Eliot
Correct Answer: (C) S.T. Coleridge
